Answer:
[tex]10.8\ \text{lb/ft^2}[/tex]
[tex]101.96\ \text{lb/ft}^2[/tex]
Explanation:
[tex]v_1[/tex] = Velocity of car = 65 mph = [tex]65\times \dfrac{5280}{3600}=95.33\ \text{ft/s}[/tex]
[tex]\rho[/tex] = Density of air = [tex]0.00237\ \text{slug/ft}^3[/tex]
[tex]v_2=0[/tex]
[tex]P_1=0[/tex]
[tex]h_1=h_2[/tex]
From Bernoulli's law we have
[tex]P_1+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_1^2+h_1=P_2+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_2^2+h_2\\\Rightarrow P_2=\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_1^2\\\Rightarrow P_2=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 0.00237\times 95.33^2\\\Rightarrow P_2=10.8\ \text{lb/ft^2}[/tex]
The maximum pressure on the girl's hand is [tex]10.8\ \text{lb/ft^2}[/tex]
Now [tex]v_1[/tex] = 200 mph = [tex]200\times \dfrac{5280}{3600}=293.33\ \text{ft/s}[/tex]
[tex]P_2=\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_1^2\\\Rightarrow P_2=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 0.00237\times 293.33^2\\\Rightarrow P_2=101.96\ \text{lb/ft}^2[/tex]
The maximum pressure on the girl's hand is [tex]101.96\ \text{lb/ft}^2[/tex]
Using the following data, determine the percentage retained, cumulative percentage retained, and percent passing for each sieve.
Sieve size Weight retained (g) No. 4 59.5 No. 8 86.5 No. 16 138.0 No. 30 127.8 No. 50 97.0 No. 100 66.8 Pan 6.3
Solution :
Sieve Size (in) Weight retain(g)
3 1.62
2 2.17
[tex]$1\frac{1}{2}$[/tex] 3.62
[tex]$\frac{3}{4}$[/tex] 2.27
[tex]$\frac{3}{8}$[/tex] 1.38
PAN 0.21
Given :
Sieve weight % wt. retain % cumulative % finer
size retained wt. retain
No. 4 59.5 10.225% 10.225% 89.775%
No. 8 86.5 14.865% 25.090% 74.91%
No. 16 138 23.7154% 48.8054% 51.2%
No. 30 127.8 21.91% 70.7154% 29.2850%
No. 50 97 16.6695% 87.3849% 12.62%
No. 100 66.8 11.4796% 98.92% 1.08%
Pan 6.3 1.08% 100% 0%
581.9 gram
Effective size = percentage finer 10% ([tex]$$D_{20}[/tex])
0.149 mm, N 100, % finer 1.08
0.297, N 50 , % finer 12.62%
x , 10%
[tex]$y-1.08 = \frac{12.62 - 1.08}{0.297 - 0.149}(x-0.149)$[/tex]
[tex]$(10-1.08) \times \frac{0.297 - 0.149}{12.62 - 1.08}+ 0.149=x$[/tex]
x = 0.2634 mm
Effective size, [tex]$D_{10} = 0.2643 \ mm$[/tex]
Now, N 16 (1.19 mm) , 51.2%
N 8 (2.38 mm) , 74.91%
x, 60%
[tex]$60-51.2 = \frac{74.91-51.2}{2.38-1.19}(x-1.19)$[/tex]
x = 1.6317 mm
[tex]$\therefore D_{60} = 1.6317 \ mm$[/tex]
Uniformity co-efficient = [tex]$\frac{D_{60}}{D_{10}}$[/tex]
[tex]$Cu= \frac{1.6317}{0.2643}$[/tex]
Cu = 6.17
Now, fineness modulus = [tex]$\frac{\Sigma \text{\ cumulative retain on all sieve }}{100}$[/tex]
[tex]$=\frac{\Sigma (10.225+25.09+48.8054+70.7165+87.39+98.92+100)}{100}$[/tex]
= 4.41
which lies between No. 4 and No. 5 sieve [4.76 to 4.00]
So, fineness modulus = 4.38 mm
Is it possible to have an iron-carbon alloy for which the mass fractions of total ferrite and proeutectoid cementite are 0.846 and 0.049, respectively? Why or why not?
Answer:
Yes it is possible.
Explanation:
This problem is about to possibility to have alloy of iron-carbon for which mass fraction of ferrite, [tex]$W_{\alpha} = 0.846$[/tex] and proeutectoid cementite, [tex]$W_{Fe_3C}=0.049$[/tex]
An alloy formation is possible when the composition values of the two alloy are equal.
Now writing the expression for the mass fraction of total ferrite, we have
[tex]$W_{\alpha}=\frac{C_{Fe_3C}-C_0}{C_{Fe_3C}-C_{\alpha}}$[/tex]
[tex]$0.846}=\frac{6.70-C_0}{6.70-0.022}$[/tex]
[tex]$5.649588 = 6.70 - C_0$[/tex]
[tex]$\therefore C_0 = 1.05 $[/tex] wt. % of C
Now write the expression for the mass fraction of the proeutectoid cementite :
[tex]$W_{Fe_3C}=\frac{C_1-0.76}{5.94}$[/tex]
[tex]$0.049=\frac{C_1-0.76}{5.94}$[/tex]
[tex]$C_1 = 1.05$[/tex] % wt. C
Since, [tex]$C_0 =C_1$[/tex], it is possible to have an alloy of iron - carbon.
Instead of running blood through a single straight vessel for a distance of 2 mm, one mammalian species uses an array of 100 tiny parallel pipes of the same total cross-sectional area, 4.0 mm2. Volume flow is 1000 mm3/s. The pressure drop for fluid passing through the single pipe is lower than that through the 100 vessel array by a factor of:_______.
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
Solution:
Given that :
Volume flow is, [tex]$Q_1 = 1000 \ mm^3/s$[/tex]
So, [tex]$Q_2= \frac{1000}{100}=10 \ mm^3/s$[/tex]
Therefore, the equation of a single straight vessel is given by
[tex]$F_{f_1}=\frac{8flQ_1^2}{\pi^2gd_1^5}$[/tex] ......................(i)
So there are 100 similar parallel pipes of the same cross section. Therefore, the equation for the area is
[tex]$\frac{\pi d_1^2}{4}=1000 \times\frac{\pi d_2^2}{4} $[/tex]
or [tex]$d_1=10 \ d_2$[/tex]
Now for parallel pipes
[tex]$H_{f_2}= (H_{f_2})_1= (H_{f_2})_2= .... = = (H_{f_2})_{10}=\frac{8flQ_2^2}{\pi^2 gd_2^5}$[/tex] ...........(ii)
Solving the equations (i) and (ii),
[tex]$\frac{H_{f_1}}{H_{f_2}}=\frac{\frac{8flQ_1^2}{\pi^2 gd_1^5}}{\frac{8flQ_2^2}{\pi^2 gd_2^5}}$[/tex]
[tex]$=\frac{Q_1^2}{Q_2^2}\times \frac{d_2^5}{d_1^5}$[/tex]
[tex]$=\frac{(1000)^2}{(10)^2}\times \frac{d_2^5}{(10d_2)^5}$[/tex]
[tex]$=\frac{10^6}{10^7}$[/tex]
Therefore,
[tex]$\frac{H_{f_1}}{H_{f_2}}=\frac{1}{10}$[/tex]
or [tex]$H_{f_2}=10 \ H_{f_1}$[/tex]
Thus the answer is option A). 10
Given a 12-bit A/D converter operating over a voltage range from ????5 V to 5 V, how much does the input voltage have to change, in general, in order to be detectable
Answer:
2.44 mV
Explanation:
This question has to be one of analog quantization size questions and as such, we use the formula
Q = (V₂ - V₁) / 2^n
Where
n = 12
V₂ = higher voltage, 5 V
V₁ = lower voltage, -5 V
Q = is the change in voltage were looking for
On applying the formula and substitutiting the values we have
Q = (5 - -5) / 2^12
Q = 10 / 4096
Q = 0.00244 V, or we say, 2.44 mV
A hair dryer is basically a duct in which a few layers of electric resistors are placed. A small fan pulls the air in and forces it to flow over the resistors, where it is heated. Air enters a 1400-W hair dryer at 100 kPa and 22°C and leaves at 47°C. The cross-sectional area of the hair dryer at the exit is 60 cm2. Neglect the power consumed by the fan and the heat losses through the walls of the hair dryer. The gas constant of air is R = 0.287 kPa·m3/kg·K. Also, cp = 1.007 kJ/kg·K for air at room temperature.
determine
(a) the volume flow rate of air at the inlet and
(b) the velocity of the air at the exit.
Answer:
a) volume flow rate of air at the inlet is 0.0471 m³/s
b) the velocity of the air at the exit is 8.517 m/s
Explanation:
Given that;
The electrical power Input W_elec = -1400 W = -1.4 kW
Inlet temperature of air T_in = 22°C
Inlet pressure of air p_in = 100 kPa
Exit temperature T_out = 47°C
Exit area of the dyer is A_out = 60 cm²= 0.006 m²
cp = 1.007 kJ/kg·K
R = 0.287 kPa·m3/kg·K
Using mass balance
m_in = m_out = m_air
W _elec = m_air ( h_in - h_out)
we know that h = CpT
so
W _elec = m_air.Cp ( T_in - T_out)
we substitute
-1.4 = m_air.1.007 ( 22 - 47 )
-1.4 = - m_air.25.175
m_air = -1.4 / - 25.175
m_ air = 0.0556 kg/s
a) volume flow rate of air at the inlet
we know that
m_air = P_in × V_in
now from the ideal gas equation
P_in = p_in / RT_in
we substitute our values
= (100×10³) / ((0.287×10³)(22+273))
= 100000 / 84665
P_in = 1.18 kg/m³
therefore inlet volume flowrate will be;
V_in = m_air / P_in
= 0.0556 / 1.18
= 0.0471 m³/s
the volume flow rate of air at the inlet is 0.0471 m³/s
b) velocity of the air at the exit
the mass flow rate remains unchanged across the duct
m_ air = P_in.A_in.V_in = P_out.A_out.V_out
still from the ideal gas equation
P_out = p_out/ RT_out ( assume p_in = p_out)
P_out = (100×10³) / ((0.287×10³)(47+273))
P_out = 1.088 kg/m³
so the exit velocity will be;
V_out = m_air / P_out.A_out
we substitute our values
V_out = 0.0556 / ( 1.088 × 0.006)
= 0.0556 / 0.006528
= 8.517 m/s
Therefore the velocity of the air at the exit is 8.517 m/s
Oil with a kinematic viscosity of 4 10 6 m2 /s fl ows through a smooth pipe 12 cm in diameter at 2.3 m/s. What velocity should water?
Answer:
Velocity of 5 cm diameter pipe is 1.38 m/s
Explanation:
Use following equation of Relation between the Reynolds numbers of both pipes
[tex]Re_{5}[/tex] = [tex]Re_{12}[/tex]
[tex]\sqrt{\frac{V_{5}XD_{5} }{v_{5}}}[/tex]= [tex]\sqrt{\frac{V_{12}XD_{12} }{v_{12}}}[/tex]
[tex]Re_{5}[/tex] = Reynold number of water pipe
[tex]Re_{12}[/tex] = Reynold number of oil pipe
[tex]V_{5}[/tex] = Velocity of water 5 diameter pipe = ?
[tex]V_{12}[/tex] = Velocity of oil 12 diameter pipe = 2.30
[tex]v_{5}[/tex] = Kinetic Viscosity of water = 1 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] [tex]m^{2}[/tex]/s
[tex]v_{12}[/tex] = Kinetic Viscosity of oil = 4 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] [tex]m^{2}[/tex]/s
[tex]D_{5}[/tex] = Diameter of pipe used for water = 0.05 m
[tex]D_{12}[/tex] = Diameter of pipe used for oil = 0.12 m
Use the formula
[tex]\sqrt{\frac{V_{5}XD_{5} }{v_{5}}}[/tex]= [tex]\sqrt{\frac{V_{12}XD_{12} }{v_{12}}}[/tex]
By Removing square rots on both sides
[tex]{\frac{V_{5}XD_{5} }{v_{5}}}[/tex]= [tex]{\frac{V_{12}XD_{12} }{v_{12}}}[/tex]
[tex]{V_{5}[/tex]= [tex]{\frac{V_{12}XD_{12} }{v_{12}XD_{5}\\}}[/tex]x[tex]v_{5}[/tex]
[tex]{V_{5}[/tex]= [ (0.23 x 0.12m ) / (4 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] [tex]m^{2}[/tex]/s) x 0.05 ] 1 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] [tex]m^{2}[/tex]/s
[tex]{V_{5}[/tex] = 1.38 m/s
Consider diodes in a rectifier circuit. Input voltage is sinusoidal with a peak of +/-10 V. Diode drop is 0.7 V. What is the PIV for each type rectifier 1. 0.7 V 2. 1.4 V 3. 10.7 V 4. 11.4 V Bridge rectifier 5. 19.3 V Full-wave rectifier 6. 8.6 V 7. 9.3 V Half-wave rectifier 8. 7.2 V 9. 12.1 V 10. 12.8 V 11. 10 V
Answer is given below:
Explanation:
Peak inverse voltage (PIV) can be defined as the maximum value of the reverse voltage of the diode, which is the maximum value of the input cycle when the diode is on. In reverse bias. Happens. 9.3V for braid rectifiers cut at 0.7The center tapered rectifier has 2 diodes in parallel so the maximum voltage is 2Vm so the answer to cut off the 0.7 voltage is19.3V. For a half wave rectifier it is Vm i.e. 10 V.Find the magnitude of the steady-state response of the system whose system model is given by dx(t)/dt+ x(t)-f(t), where f(t) 2cos8t. Keep 3 significant figures
This question is incomplete, the complete question is;
Find the magnitude of the steady-state response of the system whose system model is given by
dx(t)/dt + x(t) = f(t)
where f(t) = 2cos8t. Keep 3 significant figures
Answer: The steady state output x(t) = 0.2481 cos( 8t - 45° )
Explanation:
Given that;
dx(t)/dt + x(t) = f(t) where f(t) = 2cos8t
dx(t)/dt + x(t) = f(t)
we apply Laplace transformation on both sides
SX(s) + x(s) = f(s)
(S + 1)x(s) = f(s)
f(s) / x(s) = S + 1
x(s) / f(s) = 1 / (S + 1)
Therefore
transfer function = H(s) = x(s)/f(s) = 1/(S+1)
f(t) = 2cos8t → [ 1 / ( S + 1 ) ] → x(t) = Acos(8t - ∅ )
A = Magnitude of steady state output
S = jw
S = j8
so
A = 2 × 1 / √( 8² + 1 ) = 2 / √ (64 + 1 )
A = 2/√65 = 0.2481
∅ = tan⁻¹( 1/1) = 45°
therefore The steady state output x(t) = 0.2481 cos( 8t - 45° )
Which type of forming operation produces a higher quality surface finish, better mechanical properties, and closer dimensional control of the finished piece?A. Hot working.B. Cold working.
Answer:
Option B (Cold working) would be the correct alternative.
Explanation:
Cold working highlights the importance of reinforcing material without any need for heat through modifying its structure or appearance. Metal becomes considered to have been treated in cold whether it is treated economically underneath the material's transition temperature. The bulk of cold operating operations are carried out at room temperature.The other possibility isn't linked to the given scenario. Therefore the alternative above is the right one.
The structure of PF3(C6H5)2 is trigonal bipyramidal, with one equatorial and two axial F atoms which interchange positions when heated. Describe the low- and high- temperature 31P and 19F NMR spectra.
Answer:
For 31 P NMR spectra
low temperature
there is two types of 19f seen in low temperature and they are
one at equitorial one at axialtherefore in low temperature the 31p couples with the two types of 19F seen ( [tex]b_{f} and c_{f}[/tex]to form a triplet and this couples more with [tex]a_{f}[/tex] to form a doublet. i.e. one (1) peak
High temperature
At High temperature The exchange is fast here therefore the 31p spectra sees all 19p at once and in the same environment leading to the formation of one (1) peak
For 19 P NMR spectra
low temperature
In low temperature [tex]a_{f}, b_{f} , c_{f}[/tex] is fixed and the environment where [tex]b_{f} and c _{f}[/tex] is the same hence a peak is formed and another peak is formed by [tex]a_{f}[/tex] that makes the number of peaks = 2 peaks
High temperature
In high temperature [tex]a_{f}, b_{f} , c_{f}[/tex] exchange very fast therefore one peak is formed for all, since the fast exchanges makes NMR machine to take an average and produce just one peak for all
Explanation:
For 31 P NMR spectra
low temperature
there is two types of 19f seen in low temperature and they are
one at equitorial one at axialtherefore in low temperature the 31p couples with the two types of 19F seen ( [tex]b_{f} and c_{f}[/tex]to form a triplet and this couples more with [tex]a_{f}[/tex] to form a doublet. i.e. one (1) peak
High temperature
At High temperature The exchange is fast here therefore the 31p spectra sees all 19p at once and in the same environment leading to the formation of one (1) peak
For 19 P NMR spectra
low temperature
In low temperature [tex]a_{f}, b_{f} , c_{f}[/tex] is fixed and the environment where [tex]b_{f} and c _{f}[/tex] is the same hence a peak is formed and another peak is formed by [tex]a_{f}[/tex] that makes the number of peaks = 2 peaks
High temperature
In high temperature [tex]a_{f}, b_{f} , c_{f}[/tex] exchange very fast therefore one peak is formed for all, since the fast exchanges makes NMR machine to take an average and produce just one peak for all