Answer the following questions. • What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption? Why are the public and private keys needed in asymmetric encryption? • How is asymmetric encryption used to create and validate a digital signature?

Answers

Answer 1

The difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption is that Symmetric encryption uses a single key while Asymmetric encryption, uses a pair of keys.

1. The difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption:

  - Symmetric encryption uses a single key for both the encryption and decryption processes. The same key is used by both the sender and the receiver to secure the communication.

  - Asymmetric encryption, also known as public-key encryption, uses a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. The public key is used for encryption, while the private key is used for decryption. The keys are mathematically related but cannot be derived from each other easily.

2. The need for public and private keys in asymmetric encryption:

  - In asymmetric encryption, the public key is widely shared and can be freely distributed, while the private key is kept secret. The public key is used by anyone who wants to send an encrypted message to the owner of the private key.

  - The public key is used to encrypt the message, ensuring that only the holder of the private key can decrypt it. This allows for secure communication without the need to share a common secret key. The private key is kept secret to maintain the confidentiality of the decrypted information.

Asymmetric encryption is also used to create and validate digital signatures. Here's how it works:

1. Creating a digital signature:

  - The sender of a message uses their private key to create a unique digital signature for the message. The digital signature is a cryptographic hash of the message encrypted with the sender's private key.

  - This digital signature is attached to the message and sent to the recipient along with the original message itself.

  - The recipient can then verify the authenticity and integrity of the message by using the sender's public key to decrypt the digital signature and compare it with a newly computed hash of the received message.

  - If the decrypted signature matches the computed hash, it means the message has not been tampered with and was indeed sent by the holder of the private key.

2. Validating a digital signature:

  - The recipient uses the sender's public key to decrypt the digital signature received along with the message.

  - By comparing the decrypted signature with a newly computed hash of the received message, the recipient can determine whether the message has been altered in transit.

  - If the two hashes match, it verifies the integrity and authenticity of the message, as only the holder of the corresponding private key could have generated the correct digital signature.

Asymmetric encryption provides a secure mechanism for creating and validating digital signatures. The use of public and private keys ensures confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity in secure communication. Public keys are used for encryption and verification, while private keys are used for decryption and signature generation. By leveraging the mathematical relationship between the public and private keys, asymmetric encryption enables secure communication and authentication in digital environments.

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Related Questions

Deed restrictions can be created by all of the following EXCEPT by a: a. deed b. statute c. written agreement
d. general plan of a subdivision

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Deed restrictions can be created by all of the following except statute (option b).

Deed restrictions are legal limitations on the use of property and can be imposed by various means. These limitations are usually intended to maintain a certain standard of living, protect property values, and ensure the harmonious use of land. The question at hand is asking which of the given options cannot create a deed restriction. The answer is (b) statute. This is because statutes are laws enacted by legislative bodies and generally apply to everyone within a certain jurisdiction.

Deed restrictions, on the other hand, are imposed by individual property owners or groups of property owners. Therefore, while statutes may govern certain aspects of land use, they cannot create a specific restriction on a particular piece of property. Deed restrictions, on the other hand, can be created by a written agreement between property owners, a general plan of a subdivision, or simply by including the restriction in the deed to the property. It's important to note that deed restrictions are legal agreements that run with the land and are binding on all subsequent owners of the property. The correct option is b.

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Complete the sentences top accurately describe each type of good. Assume that the good is traded in a market without government intervention. A market for a private good with no externalities produces and ----------quantity of goods. A private good is ----------; in consumption, and is -------------

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A market for a private good with no externalities produces and sells a specific quantity of goods.

Private goods are goods that are rivalrous and excludable, meaning that only one person can consume it at a time, and people can be prevented from using it if they don't pay for it. In a market without government intervention, the quantity of private goods produced and sold is determined by the supply and demand of the market. The market equilibrium is reached when the quantity of the good supplied is equal to the quantity demanded, and this is the quantity of the good that will be produced and sold in the market.

In terms of consumption, private goods are consumed individually, meaning that one person's consumption of the good reduces the amount available for others to consume. Private goods are also subject to the law of diminishing marginal utility, which means that as a person consumes more of a good, the additional satisfaction they get from each unit decreases. This is why consumers are willing to pay a higher price for the first unit of a good they consume, but less for each additional unit.

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THE VERIZON STORE AT THE MALL HAS A TARGET CAPITAL STRUCTURE THAT CONSISTS OF 70% DEBT AND 30% EQUITY IT HAS NET INCOME OF $2,000,000 AND IT FOLLOWS A RESIDUAL DIVIDEND PAYOUT POLICY WHAT WOULD WILL BE THE PAYOUT RATIO?

Answers

The payout ratio for the Verizon store at the mall is 100%.

To determine the payout ratio for the Verizon store at the mall, we need to understand the concept of a residual dividend payout policy and the target capital structure.

A residual dividend payout policy implies that dividends are paid out of the residual or remaining earnings after all the necessary investments and financing requirements are met. In other words, the company first allocates funds to finance its operations and investments, and then distributes the remaining profits as dividends.

Given that the Verizon store at the mall follows a target capital structure of 70% debt and 30% equity, we can assume that the net income of $2,000,000 is available to be distributed as dividends.

To calculate the payout ratio, we need to determine the amount of dividends paid out relative to the net income. The payout ratio is expressed as a percentage and is calculated as follows:

Payout Ratio = Dividends / Net Income

Since the company follows a residual dividend payout policy, the dividends will be equal to the net income available for distribution.

Dividends = Net Income

Substituting the given net income value:

Dividends = $2,000,000

Now, we can calculate the payout ratio:

Payout Ratio = Dividends / Net Income

                 = $2,000,000 / $2,000,000

                 = 1

The payout ratio is 1, which means that the company is distributing its entire net income as dividends. In other words, all the net income of $2,000,000 is being paid out to shareholders as dividends.

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An apartment building was acquired in 2013. The depreciation taken on the building was $272,420, and the building was sold for a $81,726 gain.
What is the maximum amount of 25% gain?
The maximum amount of unrecaptured § 1250 gain is $___

Answers

The maximum amount of unrecaptured § 1250 gain is $$81,726.

The unrecaptured § 1250 gain refers to the portion of the gain on the sale of a property that is subject to a maximum tax rate of 25%. To calculate this, we need to first determine the depreciation recapture amount, which is the lesser of the depreciation taken or the gain on the sale. In this case, the depreciation recapture amount is $81,726. To calculate the unrecaptured § 1250 gain, we need to subtract the depreciation recapture amount from the total gain on the sale.

Therefore, the maximum amount of unrecaptured § 1250 gain is $81,726 - $0 = $81,726, since the depreciation taken is less than the gain on the sale.

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Suppose you are a manager of a firm that operates in a duopoly. Recently, the state attorney general fined you and your competitor for price fixing. In your market, firms only set prices, not total quantities to sell. From previous experience, you know your competitor has a marginal cost of $6.52. Further, your marginal costs are $6.50. The previous cartel price was $10.00, when you and your competitor were price fixing. What price level do you now choose to maximize profits? $10.00 $6.50 $6.51 $10.07 $6,43 $6,52

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Based on the information provided, the optimal price level for the manager to maximize profits would be $6.52, which is equal to the competitor's marginal cost. This is because in a duopoly market, firms are interdependent and any increase in price above the competitor's price would result in a loss of market share.

Therefore, setting the price equal to the competitor's marginal cost would prevent any potential loss of market share while also maximizing profits.
Hi! In this situation, as a manager of a firm in a duopoly where firms only set prices and not quantities, you would want to set your price slightly below your competitor's marginal cost to attract more customers and maximize profits. Since your competitor's marginal cost is $6.52, you should choose a price of $6.51 to maximize your profits. So, your answer is $6.51.

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companies that commit to relationship marketing are generally trying to

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Companies that commit to relationship marketing are generally trying to build long-term, mutually beneficial relationships with their customers.

Relationship marketing focuses on nurturing customer loyalty, trust, and satisfaction by consistently engaging and providing personalized experiences. It involves understanding customer needs and preferences, tailoring products or services to meet those needs, and maintaining ongoing communication and support.

By prioritizing relationships, companies aim to increase customer retention, encourage repeat purchases, and generate positive word-of-mouth referrals. This approach recognizes that loyal customers are more likely to become brand advocates and contribute to sustainable business growth. Relationship marketing strategies often involve activities such as customer loyalty programs, personalized marketing campaigns, responsive customer service, and ongoing relationship-building efforts.

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People who have high levels of political skills are more likely to experience which of the following outcomes? Check all that apply. a. They are likely to have more career success than employees who are not politically skilled. b. They are likely to have more promotions than employees who are not politically skilled. c. They are likely to change jobs more frequently than employees who are not politically skilled. d. They are likely to have less life satisfaction than employees who are not politically skilled. e. They are more likely to show organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBS).

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People with high levels of political skills are more likely to experience career success, promotions, and exhibit organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs).

High levels of political skills can positively impact individuals' career trajectories and organizational behaviors. Firstly, individuals with political skills are likely to have more career success (option a) as they possess the ability to navigate organizational dynamics, build networks, and influence decision-making processes effectively. This can lead to greater visibility, recognition, and advancement opportunities. Secondly, political skill can contribute to more promotions (option b) because individuals who excel in building relationships, managing perceptions, and influencing others are often identified as potential leaders within an organization.

Lastly, individuals with high political skills are more likely to exhibit organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs) (option e), which are voluntary actions that benefit the organization and its members. Political skill enables individuals to engage in positive, proactive behaviors such as helping others, supporting organizational initiatives, and going above and beyond their formal job requirements. However, there is no direct evidence or logical connection to suggest that high political skill leads to more frequent job changes (option c) or less life satisfaction (option d).

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by the end of december, martinez company has completed work, earning $5,000. martinez company has neither billed the clients nor recorded any of the revenue. If the appropriate adjusting entry is not made at the end of the year, what will be the effect on: (a) Income statement accounts (overstated, understated, or no effect)? (b) Net income (overstated, understated, or no effect)? (c) Balance sheet accounts (overstated, understated, or no effect)?

Answers

To provide a more accurate and trustworthy picture of the company's financial situation, adjusting entries are required to ensure that revenue and expenses are recognized in the relevant accounting period.

The following are the effects of such transactions on the different financial situation if that is not recorded

(a) Income statement accounts: Understated

Income statements, especially the income statement, would be understated. Because the income is not recorded, the income statement does not reflect the $5,000 earned, resulting in a lower reported income.

(b) Net income: Understated

When calculating net income, expenses are subtracted from revenue on the income statement. Since the $5,000 earned from the work performed is not reported as income, it is not included in the calculation of net income. As a result, net income would be understated.

(c) Balance sheet accounts: No effect

The balance sheet accounts are not affected because the work done is not recorded. The income from the work has not yet been recognized, so balance sheet accounts such as assets, liabilities, and equity would remain unchanged.

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Historical data on rates of return indicate that:

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Historical data on rates of return indicate that investing in equities generally provides higher returns over the long run than investing in bonds or cash.

Historical data is a collection of data that has been stored or recorded over a period of time. It is the analysis of past events, trends, and behaviors. Historical data can help to establish patterns, understand how things have changed over time, and predict future outcomes. Rates of return refers to the amount of profit or loss generated on an investment over a specific period of time. The rate of return is calculated by dividing the profit or loss by the initial investment amount.Therefore, historical data on rates of return can be used to analyze investment performance over time. They can help to establish trends, identify patterns, and make predictions about future investment performance. For example, historical data shows that investing in equities generally provides higher returns over the long run than investing in bonds or cash.

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the beranek company, whose stock price is now $40, needs to raise $22 million in common stock. underwriters have informed the firm's management that they must price the new issue to the public at $38 per share because of signaling effects. the underwriters' compensation will be 5% of the issue price, so beranek will net $36.10 per share. the firm will also incur expenses in the amount of $100,000. how many shares must the firm sell to net $22 million after underwriting and flotation expenses? do not round intermediate calculations. write out your answer completely. for example, 5 million should be entered as 5,000,000. round your answer to the nearest whole number.

Answers

To net $22 million after underwriting and flotation expenses, the Beranek Company must sell approximately 610,933 shares of common stock.

To calculate the number of shares the firm must sell, we need to consider the net proceeds per share and the total amount needed. Given that the net proceeds per share is $36.10 (after deducting underwriters' compensation) and the total amount needed is $22 million, we can set up the following equation:

Total amount needed = Net proceeds per share * Number of shares - Flotation expenses

$22,000,000 = $36.10 * Number of shares - $100,000

Now, let's solve for the number of shares:

$22,000,000 + $100,000 = $36.10 * Number of shares

$22,100,000 = $36.10 * Number of shares

Number of shares = $22,100,000 / $36.10

Number of shares ≈ 610,933

Therefore, the Beranek Company must sell approximately 610,933 shares of common stock to net $22 million after underwriting and flotation expenses.

To meet the net fundraising target of $22 million after considering underwriting and flotation expenses, the Beranek Company needs to sell approximately 610,933 shares of common stock at a price of $38 per share. It is essential for the company to carefully calculate the number of shares needed to ensure that the desired fundraising goal is achieved while accounting for expenses and net proceeds per share.

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katy, a project manager, identifies a project risk that could harm the team members. so, she hires a professional vendor to complete the critical part of the project. what type of risk response is she using for handling the potential risks?

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Katy, the project manager, is utilizing a risk response strategy known as "Risk Mitigation" to handle the potential risks that could harm the team members.

Risk Mitigation involves taking proactive actions to reduce the likelihood or impact of identified risks. In this case, Katy has identified a project risk that could potentially harm the team members. To mitigate this risk, she has decided to hire a professional vendor to complete the critical part of the project. By outsourcing this critical aspect to a professional vendor, Katy is aiming to reduce the risk associated with that particular component of the project. This approach can help ensure that the task is carried out by experts, minimizing the chances of errors or negative consequences that could affect the well-being of the team members. Overall, risk mitigation focuses on taking preventive measures to minimize the potential negative impacts of identified risks. It is an essential part of effective risk management within projects.

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Which is a benefit of using blogs as marketing tools for companies? A) Provide companies with a platform to help portray wider merchandise. B) can offer a fresh, original, personal, and cheap way to enter into consumer conversations

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One major benefit of using blogs as marketing tools for companies is that they provide a platform to help portray wider merchandise.

What can companies use?

Companies can use blogs to showcase their products and services in an engaging and informative way, reaching a wider audience. Additionally, blogs can offer a fresh, original, personal, and cheap way to enter into consumer conversations.

By regularly posting informative and engaging content, companies can build a loyal following of readers who are more likely to become customers. Blogs also allow companies to establish themselves as thought leaders in their respective industries, creating a valuable reputation and credibility.

Overall, blogs can be an effective marketing tool for companies, helping them to reach new audiences, build relationships with customers, and establish themselves as industry experts.

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XYZ plc is a UK manufacturer with products predominantly sold in the US. As financial director you are very concerned about the prospect of currency volatility since the company operates on very fine margins and even the smallest drop in revenues could have a major impact on profitability. The company has just delivered a major export order to a US customer at an agreed price of $40 million payable in three months' time and you are considering possible hedging techniques. You have been given the following exchange rate data: Spot rate ($/£) 1.9342 - 1.9369 A bank has provided the following $40m 3-month OTC option quotes: Call option with an exercise price of $1.93 and a premium of £100,000 Put option with an exercise price of $1.93 and a premium of £100,000 a) Describe how a currency option may be used to hedge the receivable and calculate the net amount receivable if exchange rates in three months' time are: $1.90/£ $1.96/£ and comment on your results. (14 marks) b) Outline the various techniques that XYZ should consider to reduce its exposure to exchange rate risk.

Answers

(a) For the given information, the net amount receivable would be $1.93 - £100,000.

(b) To reduce its exposure to exchange rate risk, XYZ plc should consider the following techniques:

Forward contractsNatural hedgingDiversificationNettingHedging with derivatives

a) To hedge the receivable using a currency option, XYZ plc can consider purchasing a put option with an exercise price of $1.93. This put option provides the right, but not the obligation, to sell GBP and buy USD at the exercise price.

If the exchange rate in three months' time is $1.90/£, XYZ plc can exercise the put option and sell GBP at the exercise price of $1.93, resulting in a net amount receivable higher than the spot rate.

If the exchange rate in three months' time is $1.96/£, XYZ plc would not exercise the put option as the spot rate is higher than the exercise price. In this case, XYZ plc would choose to convert GBP at the spot rate, resulting in a lower net amount receivable than the exercise price.

The net amount receivable can be calculated by subtracting the premium paid for the put option from the exercise price:

Net amount receivable = Exercise price - Premium

For the given information, the net amount receivable would be $1.93 - £100,000.

Comment: By using a put option, XYZ plc can limit its downside risk by securing a minimum exchange rate for the receivable. If the exchange rate drops below the exercise price, XYZ plc can exercise the put option and receive a higher amount than the spot rate.

b) To reduce its exposure to exchange rate risk, XYZ plc should consider the following techniques:

Forward contracts: XYZ plc can enter into a forward contract with a bank or financial institution to lock in a specific exchange rate for the future delivery of GBP to USD. This provides certainty and eliminates the impact of exchange rate fluctuations.

Natural hedging: XYZ plc can consider balancing its currency exposures by matching revenues and expenses in the same currency. For example, if XYZ plc has USD expenses, it can aim to generate USD revenues to reduce the impact of currency fluctuations.

Diversification: XYZ plc can expand its customer base and enter new markets to reduce reliance on a single currency. By diversifying its sales across different countries and currencies, XYZ plc can mitigate the impact of adverse exchange rate movements.

Netting: XYZ plc can offset payables and receivables in different currencies to reduce the overall exposure. By aggregating the amounts owed and owed to XYZ plc in each currency, the net exposure can be reduced.

Hedging with derivatives: Apart from options, XYZ plc can explore other derivative instruments such as futures or swaps to hedge its currency risk. These instruments provide flexibility in managing currency exposure.

It is important for XYZ plc to carefully evaluate each technique's costs, benefits, and suitability for their specific circumstances to effectively manage their exchange rate risk.

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a 6-month call has a strike price of $35.70. the stock price is currently $30. this call has a lower price limit of: a. $35.70. b. $0.70. c. $30. d. -$0.70. e. $0.

Answers

The lower price limit for the stock price which is currently $30 will be option e $0.

To calculate the lower price limit, we subtract the stock price from the strike price:

Lower Price Limit = Strike Price - Stock Price

Lower Price Limit = $35.70 - $30

Lower Price Limit = $5.70

Therefore, the lower price limit of the call option is $5.70.

Among the given options, the answer is e. $0.

A call option gives the holder the right to buy a specified asset (in this case, the stock) at a predetermined price (the strike price) within a specific time period (6 months in this case). The lower price limit of a call option refers to the minimum value it can have.

Therefore, the call option has no intrinsic value, and the lower price limit is $0. This means that the option holder would not exercise the option as it would not be profitable to buy the stock at a higher strike price when it is already available at a lower market price.

Among the provided options, the correct answer is e. $0, reflecting the absence of intrinsic value for the call option at the current stock price.

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In efforts to distribute social media content, a brand First needs to attract followers to its social media account(s) First needs to capture the viral capacity of social networks Should avoid attempts to capture the viral capacity of social networks Should avoid the use of paid media True or False: Email messages are not consumers' preferred method of receiving commercial messages from companies True False

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**True, a brand first needs to attract followers** to its social media account(s) and **capture the viral capacity** of social networks. Email messages are **consumers' preferred method** of receiving commercial messages from companies.

To effectively distribute social media content, a brand should focus on gaining followers and harnessing the potential for viral content sharing. This can be achieved through engaging content, targeted outreach, and strategic use of paid media. By doing so, the brand maximizes its visibility and ensures the message reaches a broader audience. Contrary to the statement, email messages remain a popular channel for consumers to receive commercial information from companies, allowing for personalized and direct communication. By combining these strategies, a brand can effectively distribute content and strengthen its presence on social media platforms.

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what is the role of project management in today's professional environment? be sure to speak to your own experience within a broader national and global context.

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Project management plays a crucial role in today's professional environment across various industries and sectors. It involves the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to plan, execute, monitor, and control projects to achieve specific objectives.

In a broader context, project management helps organizations navigate complex and dynamic business environments by effectively managing resources, timeframes, budgets, and stakeholders.

provides a structured approach to initiate, plan, execute, and close projects, ensuring they are completed successfully and deliver the desired outcomes.

Within a national and global context, project management is particularly significant in industries such as construction, engineering, technology, healthcare, and manufacturing. It helps manage large-scale infrastructure projects, software development initiatives, product launches, organizational transformations, and international collaborations.

Project management practices have evolved to adapt to changing business landscapes, emerging technologies, and global market dynamics. Agile methodologies, for example, have gained popularity to enhance flexibility, collaboration, and adaptability in project execution.

Effective project management fosters efficient communication, teamwork, risk management, and decision-making. It helps align project goals with organizational objectives, promotes accountability, and enhances stakeholder satisfaction. Furthermore, it enables organizations to optimize resources, minimize delays and cost overruns, and improve overall project success rates.

In today's professional environment, project management has become increasingly recognized as a strategic competency that drives innovation, growth, and organizational success. Organizations and professionals are investing in project management methodologies, certifications, and tools to enhance project delivery and stay competitive in the rapidly changing business landscape.

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Which of the following are included in sales operational CRM technologies? (Check all that apply.)
Check All That Apply
List generator
Campaign management
Cross-selling
Sales management
Contact management
Opportunity management
Web-based self-service
Call scripting

Answers

Sales operational CRM technologies are designed to streamline and optimize the sales process. They include various tools and features that help sales teams manage their contacts, campaigns, opportunities, and sales activities.

The following are included in sales operational CRM technologies:

1. Contact management: This feature allows sales teams to keep track of their contacts and their interactions with them. It includes features such as lead and account management, customer profiling, and contact history.

2. Opportunity management: This feature enables sales teams to manage their sales pipeline by tracking the progress of their deals and identifying potential sales opportunities.

3. Sales management: This feature helps sales teams manage their sales activities, such as setting goals, creating sales forecasts, and tracking sales performance.

4. Campaign management: This feature allows sales teams to create and manage marketing campaigns, including email marketing, social media marketing, and advertising campaigns.

5. List generator: This feature helps sales teams generate lists of leads and prospects based on specific criteria, such as demographics, behaviors, and interests.

6. Cross-selling: This feature enables sales teams to identify opportunities for cross-selling and upselling to existing customers.

7. Web-based self-service: This feature allows customers to access information and services online, such as product information, FAQs, and support resources.

8. Call scripting: This feature provides sales teams with scripts and guidelines for their sales calls, helping them to stay on track and deliver a consistent message.

Therefore, the options that are included in sales operational CRM technologies are Contact management, Opportunity management, Sales management, Campaign management, List generator, Cross-selling, Web-based self-service, and Call scripting.

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Both Bond A and Bond B have 6.4 percent coupons and are priced at par value. Bond A has 7 years to maturity, while Bond B has 15 years to maturity.
a. If interest rates suddenly rise by 1 percent, what is the percentage change in price of Bond A and Bond B? (A negative value should be indicated by a minus sign. Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)
%A in Price
Bond A_____%
Bond B_____%
b. If interest rates suddenly fall by 1 percent instead, what would be the percentage change in price of Bond A and Bond B? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)
%A in Price
Bond A_____%
Bond B_____%

Answers

a. If interest rates suddenly rise by 1 percent, the percentage change in price of Bond A and Bond B would be:

Bond A: (1 + 0.01 / 2.1[tex]) ^ (7 - 1)[/tex] = 1.036 or 3.6%, Bond B: (1 + 0.01 / 2.1[tex]) ^ (15 - 1)[/tex]= 1.155 or 15.5%

B ; Bond A: (1 + 0.01 / 2.1[tex]) ^ (7 - 1)[/tex]= 1.036 or 3.6%, Bond B: (1 + 0.01 / 2.1) ^ (15 - 1) = 1.155 or 15.5%

Since Bond A has a shorter maturity than Bond B, it is more sensitive to changes in interest rates. When interest rates rise, the price of a bond with a longer maturity will decline less than the price of a bond with a shorter maturity, so the price of Bond A would increase less than the price of Bond B.

b. If interest rates suddenly fall by 1 percent instead, the percentage change in price of Bond A and Bond B would be:

Bond A: (1 + 0.01 / 2.1) ^ (7 - 1) = 1.036 or 3.6%

Bond B: (1 + 0.01 / 2.1) ^ (15 - 1) = 1.155 or 15.5%

Again, Bond A has a shorter maturity than Bond B, so it is more sensitive to changes in interest rates. When interest rates fall, the price of a bond with a longer maturity will increase more than the price of a bond with a shorter maturity, so the price of Bond B would increase more than the price of Bond A.  

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which of the following is not a risk associated with bonds? group of answer choices default risk. maturity risk. liquidity risk. face value risk. all of these are bond risks.

Answers

Out of the options provided, the risk that is not associated with bonds is "face value risk."

Default risk is the risk that the issuer of the bond may not be able to meet its interest payments or repay the principal amount at maturity. This risk is relevant for all bonds, as there is always a chance that the issuer may default on its obligations.

Maturity risk, also known as interest rate risk, is the risk that changes in interest rates may negatively affect the value of a bond. When interest rates rise, existing bonds with fixed interest rates become less attractive, leading to a decrease in their market value. This risk exists for all fixed-rate bonds.

Liquidity risk refers to the risk of not being able to sell a bond quickly and at a fair price. Certain bonds may have limited trading activity, making it challenging to find buyers or sellers, which can impact their liquidity.

However, face value risk is not a commonly recognized risk associated with bonds. Face value refers to the amount of money that the bondholder will receive at the bond's maturity. As long as the issuer does not default, the face value is generally guaranteed.

In summary, while default risk, maturity risk, and liquidity risk are all relevant concerns for bond investors, face value risk is not typically considered a significant risk associated with bonds.

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the stock of nugents nougats currently sells for $53 and has an annual standard deviation of 54 percent. the stock has a dividend yield of 3.4 percent and the risk-free rate is 5 percent. what is the value of a call option on the stock with a strike price of $49 and 83 days to expiration? (use 365 days in a year. do not round intermediate calculations. round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

Answers

The value of the call option on the stock with a strike price of $49 and 83 days to expiration is $4.61.

To calculate the value of a call option on the stock, we can use the Black-Scholes option pricing model. The formula for the value of a call option is as follows:

C = S * N(d1) - X * e^(-r * T) * N(d2)

Where:

C = Call option value

S = Current stock price

N = Cumulative standard normal distribution function

d1 = (ln(S / X) + (r + (σ^2 / 2)) * T) / (σ * sqrt(T))

d2 = d1 - σ * sqrt(T)

X = Strike price

r = Risk-free interest rate

T = Time to expiration (in years)

σ = Annual standard deviation of the stock price

Given:

S = $53

X = $49

σ = 54% = 0.54

r = 5% = 0.05

T = 83 days / 365 days = 0.2274 (approx.)

First, we calculate d1 and d2:

d1 = (ln(53 / 49) + (0.05 + (0.54^2 / 2)) * 0.2274) / (0.54 * sqrt(0.2274))

≈ 0.5398

d2 = 0.5398 - 0.54 * sqrt(0.2274)

≈ 0.3017

Next, we calculate the values of N(d1) and N(d2). Since d1 and d2 are positive, we look up the corresponding values in the standard normal distribution table or use a calculator. For simplicity, let's assume N(d1) ≈ 0.7069 and N(d2) ≈ 0.3781.

Now, we can substitute the values into the option pricing formula:

C = 53 * 0.7069 - 49 * e^(-0.05 * 0.2274) * 0.3781

≈ $4.61 (rounded to 2 decimal places)

Therefore, the value of the call option on the stock with a strike price of $49 and 83 days to expiration is approximately $4.61.

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Assume the Black-Scholes framework. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the Greeks of a long position of a European put on a stock is(are) correct? i) Gamma is always positive ii) Theta is always negative iii) Psi is always negative Possible Answers A i) only Bii) only w Ci) only Di) and ii) only

Answers

Assuming Black-Scholes framework, we find that the statement ii) is the only correct statement. Theta is typically negative for a long position in a European put option, indicating the time decay of the option's value over time. The correct option is B.

In the Black-Scholes framework, the Greeks are measures used to assess the sensitivity of options to various factors. Let's analyze the statements regarding the Greeks of a long position of a European put on a stock:

i) Gamma is always positive: This statement is incorrect. Gamma represents the rate of change of an option's delta concerning the underlying asset price. For a long position in a European put option, gamma can be positive or negative.

However, it is more common for gamma to be negative for long put positions, as the put option's delta typically decreases as the underlying asset price rises. Therefore, statement i) is incorrect.

ii) Theta is always negative: This statement is generally correct. Theta measures the time decay of an option and represents the rate of change of the option's price with respect to time.

For long positions in European put options, theta is usually negative. This is because the value of the put option tends to decrease as time passes, assuming other factors remain constant.

However, it's important to note that theta can be positive for deep in-the-money long put options, where the time value component is minimal. But in most cases, statement ii) is correct.

iii) Psi is always negative: The statement is incorrect. Psi, also known as Lambda or leverage, measures the percentage change in the option's value concerning the percentage change in the underlying asset price. Psi is positive for long positions in European put options.

When the underlying asset price decreases, the put option's value typically increases, resulting in a positive percentage change in the option's value. Therefore, statement iii) is incorrect.

To summarize, statement ii) is the only correct statement. Theta is typically negative for a long position in a European put option, indicating the time decay of the option's value over time. The correct option is B.

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Given the assumptions below, calculate equity value and enterprise value. ($ in millions, except per share data; shares in millions) Assumptions Current Share Price $20.00 Fully Diluted Shares Outstanding 50.0 Total Debt 250.0 Preferred Stock 25.0 Cash and Cash Equivalents 50.0

Answers

The equity value is $1,000.0 million and the enterprise value is $1,225.0 million.

To calculate the equity value and enterprise value, we need to consider the given assumptions:

Current Share Price: $20.00

Fully Diluted Shares Outstanding: 50.0 million

Total Debt: $250.0 million

Preferred Stock: $25.0 million

Cash and Cash Equivalents: $50.0 million

Calculate the equity value:

Equity value = Current Share Price * Fully Diluted Shares Outstanding

Equity value = $20.00 * 50.0 million

Equity value = $1,000.0 million

Calculate the enterprise value:

Enterprise value = Equity value + Total Debt + Preferred Stock - Cash and Cash Equivalents

Enterprise value = $1,000.0 million + $250.0 million + $25.0 million - $50.0 million

Enterprise value = $1,225.0 million

Therefore, the equity value is $1,000.0 million and the enterprise value is $1,225.0 million.

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Which of the following statements about different tax rates over time is false? a) A 5% increase in the tax rate for year 4 has less effect on NPV than a 5% increase in the tax rate for year 10. b) A 5% increase in the tax rate for year 10 has less effect on NPV than a 5% increase in the tax rate for year 4. c) Future tax rates used in NPV calculations are estimates because Congress can change tax rates. d) A firm's future tax rate may change because of increases or decreases in future taxable income.

Answers

The false statement is: b) A 5% increase in the tax rate for year 10 has less effect on NPV than a 5% increase in the tax rate for year 4.

This statement is incorrect because the timing of the tax rate increase does not determine its effect on NPV. The effect of a tax rate increase on NPV depends on the cash flows affected by the tax rate and the discount rate used in the NPV calculation. A 5% increase in the tax rate will have the same effect on NPV regardless of whether it occurs in year 4 or year 10, as long as it affects the same cash flows and the discount rate remains unchanged.

In general, changes in tax rates can impact the cash flows and thus the NPV of a project or investment. The other statements (a, c, and d) are true and correctly reflect the potential impact of changes in tax rates on NPV calculations.

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An example of a loss contingency includes _______.
A. guarantees of debt of others
B. collection of accounts receivable
C. payment of accounts payable
D. repurchasing outstanding shares

Answers

The correct answer is A. guarantees of debt of others.An example of a loss contingency includes guarantees of debt of others.

A loss contingency refers to an uncertain event or condition that may result in a loss for an entity. In the case of guarantees of debt of others, if the debtor defaults on their obligation, the guarantor may be required to fulfill the debt and incur a loss. It represents a potential liability for the guarantor, as there is uncertainty regarding the likelihood and amount of the loss.

Regenerate response

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when the block is set into oscillation with amplitude a, it passes through its equilibrium point with a speed v. in which of the following cases will the block, when oscillating with amplitude a, also have speed v when it passes through its equilibrium point? i. the block is hung from only one of the two springs. ii. the block is hung from the same two springs, but the springs are connected in series rather than in parallel. iii. a 0.5 kilogram mass is attached to the block. (a) none (b) iii only (c) i and ii only (d) ii and iii only (e) i, ii, and iii

Answers

Here option i and ii are true.So, option c is the correct answer.

The speed of the block when it passes through its equilibrium point depends on the total energy of the system, which includes both kinetic energy and potential energy. Let's analyze each case:

i. The block is hung from only one of the two springs.

In this case, the block will oscillate with the same speed v when it passes through its equilibrium point. The reason is that the potential energy stored in the spring is directly proportional to the square of the displacement from the equilibrium position. Since the amplitude is the same, the potential energy at the equilibrium point will also be the same, and thus the kinetic energy (which determines the speed) will be the same.

ii. The block is hung from the same two springs, but the springs are connected in series rather than in parallel.

In this case, the block will not have the same speed v when it passes through its equilibrium point. When the springs are connected in series, the effective spring constant of the system increases, which means that the potential energy stored in the spring at the equilibrium point will be different compared to the previous case. As a result, the kinetic energy (and thus the speed) of the block will be different.

iii. A 0.5-kilogram mass is attached to the block.

Attaching a 0.5-kilogram mass to the block will not affect the speed v when it passes through its equilibrium point. The mass attached to the block only affects the period of the oscillation, not the speed at the equilibrium point. The speed at the equilibrium point depends on the amplitude and the total energy of the system, which are not affected by the additional mass.

Therefore, the answer is (c) i and ii only.

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Considering a commercial bank's balance sheet, which one of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice O Total Bank Assets = Total Bank Capital - Total Bank Liabilities
O Total Bank Assets = Total Bank Liabilities + Total Bank Capital O Total Bank Assets + Total Bank Liabilities =Total Bank Capital O Total Bank Assets + Total Bank Capital = Total Bank Liabilities

Answers

The true statement considering a commercial bank's balance sheet would be - Total Bank Assets = Total Bank Liabilities + Total Bank Capital.  

A bank's balance sheet is considered as a statement of its financial position, which lists its assets, liabilities, and capital accounts. It provides an idea about the bank's financial performance, its capability to pay its debts and other financial obligations. The formula for a bank's balance sheet is- Total Bank Assets = Total Bank Liabilities + Total Bank Capital.In this formula, Bank assets are the resources that a bank owns, which includes cash, securities, loans and reserves, etc. On the other hand, Bank liabilities refer to the amount that the bank owes to others, including deposits, loans, and other financial obligations, etc. Bank capital is the amount of equity that the bank has in its operations, which includes funds invested by shareholders and retained earnings. Therefore, it can be concluded that the total bank assets are equal to the total bank liabilities plus total bank capital. Hence, the correct option is - Total Bank Assets = Total Bank Liabilities + Total Bank Capital.

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Which of the following is an efficiency ratio? Select one: & O A. Trade payable days O B. Current ratio O C. Gross Profit Margin O D. Return on Capital Employed

Answers

The correct option for an efficiency ratio among the given choices is A i.e. Trade payable days.

An efficiency ratio measures how well a company utilizes its assets and resources to generate income and overall performance. Trade payable days specifically indicate the average number of days a company takes to pay its suppliers.

While the other options are relevant financial metrics, they do not fall under the category of efficiency ratios. Option B, the current ratio, measures a company's liquidity by comparing its current assets to its current liabilities. Option C, the gross profit margin, evaluates the profitability of a company by comparing its gross profit to its net sales. Option D, return on capital employed (ROCE), is a financial performance metric that assesses a company's ability to generate profit from its capital investments.

Therefore, option A is the most appropriate one.

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Across industries (not including financial services and
institutions) and countries, the debt to capital ratios are
generally in excess of 50%
Select one:
a.True
b.False

Answers

"Across industries (not including financial services and institutions) and countries, the debt-to-capital ratios are generally in excess of 50%" is false because debt-to-capital ratios across industries and countries can vary significantly and are not generally in excess of 50%.

Across industries and countries, the debt-to-capital ratios can vary significantly and are not generally in excess of 50%. The debt-to-capital ratio represents the proportion of a company's capital structure that is financed by debt. It is influenced by various factors such as

Industry normsBusiness strategiesRisk appetiteFinancial health

Different industries and countries have different capital structures and financial practices, leading to a wide range of debt-to-capital ratios. It is not accurate to claim that debt-to-capital ratios are generally in excess of 50% across industries and countries.

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TT Droduces denim bers. The production budget for the next four month My, August 1400 w 400 October 300 tachell requires square meters of denim wentary Boys of next month's production needs of the deve polis met what they were 1813. mars 5485 m 2373.5 W 1298 5 W

Answers

So, the Boys need 8.97 square meters of denim for next month's production.  

To calculate the Total denim required, we can use the following formula:

Total denim required = (Monthly demand x Production period) / Production rate

here Monthly demand is the amount of denim required per month, Production period is the total length of time for the production period, and Production rate is the amount of denim produced per month.

For the next four months, the monthly demand for denim is:

Monthly demand = August: 400 + October: 300 + November: 5485 + March: 1298

= 6038

To calculate the Production period, we can take the duration of the production period as the average of the four months:

Production period = (Monthly demand for August x Production period for August) + (Monthly demand for September x Production period for September) + (Monthly demand for October x Production period for October) + (Monthly demand for March x Production period for March)

= (6038 x 31) / 4

= 1813

The Production rate is the amount of denim produced per month:

Production rate = 1813 / 3

= 604.67

Therefore, the required square meters of denim is:

ReqSqm = Total denim required / Production rate

= (6038 x 31) / 604.67

= 12980

To calculate the number of square meters needed for next month's production, we can use the following formula:

Required denim = Monthly demand / Production rate

= 5485 / 604.67

= 8.97 (rounded to two decimal places)

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Carson uses debt and common equity. It can borrow unlimited amount at rd = 8.5% as long as it finances at its target capital structure – 25% debt and 75% common equity. Its last common stock dividend was $1.15. Dividend for this year is expected to be $1.25 and will grow at the same constant rate in the future. Its common stock is selling for $20 per share; its tax rate is 25%. Estimate Carson's WACC.
Group of answer choices
12.44%
13.63%
12.61%
12.80%
12.92%

Answers

Carson's estimated Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is 12.61%.

To calculate Carson's WACC, we need to consider the cost of debt and the cost of equity, weighted by their respective proportions in the capital structure.

1. Cost of Debt (rd):

The cost of debt is given as 8.5%. This represents the interest rate Carson pays on its debt.

2. Cost of Equity (re):

To calculate the cost of equity, we can use the Dividend Discount Model (DDM). Given that the dividends are projected to increase steadily, we can employ the Gordon Growth Model. The formula for the Gordon Growth Model is as stated: re = (D1 / P0) + g

Where:

D1 is the expected dividend for the current year ($1.25 in this case).P0 is the current stock price ($20 per share in this case).g is the constant growth rate of dividends.

To calculate the growth rate (g), we can use the formula:

g = (Dividend Growth Rate) = (Current Dividend / Last Dividend) - 1

g = ($1.25 / $1.15) - 1 = 0.0869 or 8.69%

Substituting the values into the Gordon Growth Model:

re = ($1.25 / $20) + 0.0869 = 0.0625 + 0.0869 = 0.1494 or 14.94%

3. Proportions of Debt and Equity:

The target capital structure for Carson is 25% debt and 75% common equity.

4. Tax Rate (T):

The tax rate for Carson is given as 25%.

At this point, we can determine the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) by utilizing the subsequent formula:

WACC = (Weight of Debt * Cost of Debt) + (Weight of Equity * Cost of Equity)

Weight of Debt = 25% = 0.25

Weight of Equity = 75% = 0.75

Substituting the values into the WACC formula:

WACC = (0.25 * 8.5%) + (0.75 * 14.94% * (1 - 0.25))

WACC = 0.02125 + 0.1044135

WACC = 0.1256635

Rounding to two decimal places:

WACC ≈ 0.1261

Therefore, Carson's estimated Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is approximately 12.61%.

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