Anyone know the answer

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

You take the points and input them into the equation. If they all equal the set then it is the equation. So for example a point on the graph is (2,30) so in this case x is 2 so you would do y= 15(2) which is 30. So that equation and point checks out. Repeat with the others

Answer:

its c

Step-by-step explanation:

:)

Answer:

the answer is 12

Answer:

C. 4i

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C. 4i

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\sqrt{-16} = \sqrt{16} \sqrt{-1}[/tex] (because [tex]\sqrt{ab} =\sqrt{a} \sqrt{b}[/tex])

Since [tex]\sqrt{16}[/tex]=4, and [tex]\sqrt{-1}[/tex]=i, [tex]\sqrt{-16}[/tex]=4i

Answer:

A)P(ACC has a team in the championship game) = 0.5

B)P(SEC has a team in the championship game) = 0.4

C)P(both ACC & SEC having teams in the championship games) = 0.05

D)P(ACC or SEC) = 0.85

E)P(not ACC or SEC) = 0.15

Step-by-step explanation:

A) We are told that in the last 20 years, ACC has had a team in the championship game for 10 times.

Thus;

P(ACC has a team in the championship game) = 10/20 = 0.5

B) SEC has a team in the championship game 8 times in the last 20 years;

Thus;

P(SEC has a team in the championship game) = 8/20 = 0.4

C) since both ACC and SEC have had teams in the championship game for the past 20 years, then;

P(both ACC & SEC having teams in the championship games) = 1/20 = 0.05

D) Addition rule of probability is that;

P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A & B)

Applying it to this question, we have;

P(ACC or SEC) = P(ACC) + P(SEC) - P(ACC & SEC)

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

P(ACC or SEC) = 0.5 + 0.4 - 0.05

P(ACC or SEC) = 0.85

E) from complement rule, we can find the probability that the championship game will not a have team from one of these two conferences.

Thus;

P(ACC not SEC) = 1 - P(ACC or SEC)

P(ACC not SEC) = 1 - 0.85

P(ACC not SEC) = 0.15

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: i wont tell you the answer but ill thell you how to do it,soo the strat is to count where the line is as a different part then u just add em

example 1:41.6

8-4=4x4=16

8x3.2=25.6

16+25.6=41.6

:)

Answer:

A. 15

B. 25.6

C. 41.6

Answer:

0.2307 > 0.05, which means that we accept the null hypothesis, that is, that the population proportion in favor of candidate A is close to 0.79, that is, it is not significantly more than 0.79.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are interested in determining whether the proportion of the population in favor of Candidate A is significantly more than 79%.

This means that the null hypothesis is:

[tex]H_{0}: p = 0.79[/tex]

And the alternate hypothesis is:

[tex]H_{a}: p > 0.79[/tex]

We know that the p-value is 0.2307. At the 0.05 level of significance, it can be concluded that the proportion of the population in favor of candidate A is?

0.2307 > 0.05, which means that we accept the null hypothesis, that is, that the population proportion in favor of candidate A is close to 0.79, that is, it is not significantly more than 0.79.

Answer:

Since [tex]f(25\,ft) < 8\,ft[/tex], then we conclude that it will be a goal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the trajectory of the ball be represented by [tex]f(x) = -0.05\cdot (x-16)^{2}+11[/tex], where [tex]x[/tex] is the horizontal distance of the ball from origin, in feet, and [tex]f(x)[/tex] is the height of the ball above ground, in feet.

If Deshawn does not block Chris's shot, then we should check if shot will be a goal and this condition must be fulfilled:

[tex]f(25\,ft) < 8\,ft[/tex] (1)

If we know that [tex]x = 25\,ft[/tex], then the height of the ball at the start of the goal is:

[tex]f(x) = -0.05\cdot (x-16)^{2}+11[/tex] (2)

[tex]f(x) = 6.95\,ft[/tex]

Since [tex]f(25\,ft) < 8\,ft[/tex], then we conclude that it will be a goal.

Answer:

1. D

2. D

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find two points on the line that are EXACTLY on the dot. Count how many points the line goes down and to the side. Then put it into a slope which is rise/run or y/x

So since the two points I picked where 2 points down and 3 points to the side. Its 2/3. Also, the line is going down so its negative. Therefore, you make the slope negative. So, -2/3 is the answer.

2. In the equation, she did “1 - 17/ 1 - 20”

This is wrong because while the numerator is right, the original point was (20, 1) for the denominator. Therefore, she used y values where she should of use X-values as the equation should be

1 - 17/ 20 - 1

Answer:

x=20

Step-by-step explanation:

x-19=1

x=1+19

x=20

Answer:

x-19=1

or,x=1+19

or,x=20

Hence,the value of x is 20

Answer:

days 7

weeks 4

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 7DAYS Iin a week

there are 4WEEKS in a month

Answer:

d = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

For:

(X1, Y1) = (2, 3)

(X2, Y2) = (2, 8)

Distance Equation Solution:

d=(2−2)2+(8−3)2−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√

d=(0)2+(5)2−−−−−−−−−√

d=0+25−−−−−√

d=2–√5

d=5

Answer:

it is at least $300000 good luck

Answer:

-14x + 34y

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find the sum of the two expressions by adding like terms:

(15x + 15y) + (-18x + 15y)

= -3x + 30y

Now, subtract 11x - 4y, again by combining like terms:

(-3x + 30y) - (11x - 4y)

= -14x + 34y

So, the answer is -14x + 34y

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

what was a similarty between the united states troops sent to the spanish- american war and troops sent to fight in world war 1

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  D  cos(N)

Step-by-step explanation:

In case you haven't remembered the fact that the sine of an angle is equal to the cosine of its complement (the other acute angle in a right triangle), you can always go back to the definitions.

  Sin = Opposite/Hypotenuse

  sin(L) = NM/NL

and

  Cos = Adjacent/Hypotenuse

  cos(N) = NM/NL = sin(L)

The equivalent of sin(L) is cos(N).

Answer: It is related because linear scale factors are also squared for area scale factors.

Step-by-step explanation: Imagine two squares, which are similar (all squares are similar), and one has a side length of two and other has a side length of four. The length ratio is 1:2. But if you calculate the areas the area ratio is 1:4, which is the linear scale factor of two squared to get to 4

Answer: 1133.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1133.5

Step-by-step explanation:

area = 3.14 (19)square

3.14 (361)

1133.54 ( round nearest ten)

1133.5

Answer:

20x^2+23x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

(4x+3)(5x+2)

(4x)(5x)+2(4x)+(5x)3+3(2)

20x^2+8x+15x+6

20x^2+23x+6

Hope that helps :)

Answer:

20x^2 + 23x + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

4x (5x + 2) + 3(5x + 2)

20x^2 + 8x + 15x + 6

20x^2 + 23x + 6

Answer

87.72

Step-by-step explanation:

7.5% of 68 is 5.1 so 68+5.1=73.1

20% of 73.1=14.62 sooooo                        14.62+73.1=87.72

Answer:

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The probability of a property being sold is independent of any other property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

12 properties

This means that [tex]n = 12[/tex]

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that [tex]p = 0.5[/tex]

Compute the probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

This is:

[tex]P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0002[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0029[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0161[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{12,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{9} = 0.0537[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{8} = 0.1208[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 5) = C_{12,5}.(0.5)^{5}.(0.5)^{7} = 0.1934[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = C_{12,6}.(0.5)^{6}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.2256[/tex]

[tex]P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) = 0.0002 + 0.0029 + 0.0161 + 0.0537 + 0.1208 + 0.1934 + 0.2256 = 0.6127[/tex]

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Answer:

It is already explained in simplest form

Step-by-step explanation:

It can be written as 0.925 in decimal form (rounded to 6 decimal places).

Answer:

77/84

Step-by-step explanation:

84 ÷ 12 = 7

Multiply the numerator and denominator by 7

[tex]\frac{11}{12}=\frac{11*7}{12*7}=\frac{77}{84}[/tex]

Answer:

When used as a diacritic mark, the term dot is usually reserved for the interpunct, or to the glyphs 'combining dot above' and 'combining dot below' which may be combined with some letters of the extended Latin alphabets in use in Central European languages and Vietnamese.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3 jars of the chemical should be ordered

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Ol = 10 days

d = 16 ml

z = 1.65 at 95% service level

σ = 3.5 ml

Check of stock reviewed that 9 of 25-milliliter (ml) jars are on hand

so inventory in position = 9 × 25 = 225 ml        

now,

since this is a fixed-order-internal system;

first we determine our Target inventory

Target inventory = 16 × ( 10 + 6) + 1.65√( 10 + 6 ) × 3.5

Target inventory = 265 + 23.1  

Target inventory = 288.1

so  

Amount to order = Target inventory - inventory in position

Amount to order = 288.1 - 225  = 63.1 ml

∴ number of jars to order will be;

⇒ 63.1  ml/ 25 ml = 2.5  { approximately 3 jars }

Therefore, 3 jars of the chemical should be ordered

Answer:

for the regular tickets they charged $8 for the pre sale the charged $6

Answer:

are we in that same class like...

-jk-

it should be 565.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5:51 P.M.

Step-by-step explanation:

You first add 36 and 10 which you get 46 then add the 46 to the total so, 46 + 5 is 51 so she will get back at 5:51 P.M

Answer:

u first add 36 to 5:05=5:41 then add 10 more min and that is 51

Answer:

OOO

Step-by-step explanation: