Can I get some help with this question plzzz

Answer:

i think its the third one

Answer:

I think that G is the correct answer , 24 ft2 .

hope it helps u ..:)

Answer:

It should be D, [tex]x^4 - 2x^3 + 7x^2 -12x - 4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, the equation given in the question is the factored form of the equation D. It can be solved using FOIL (First Outside Inside Last):

x * x³ = [tex]x^{4[/tex]

x * 7x = 7x²

x * 2 = 2x

-2 * x³ = -2x³

-2 * 7x = -14x

-2 * 2 = -4

This all would add up to ⇒ [tex]x^{4}[/tex] - 2x³ + 7x² + (-14x + 2x) -4

Simplifying the parenthesis further would give the option D as the answer.

Answer:

H. 70 ft^3

Step-by-step explanation:

The standard formula for a rectangular prism is L x W x H

So, we just need to plug-in the values into the formula

(7) x (2.5) x (4)

70

Answer:

C) 12%

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 25 ppl in this class. there are 3 ppl with 7 or 8 ppl in their family. 3/25=0.12=12%

Answer:

the answer is C

Step-by-step explanation:

you add up all the dots then take 3 and do 3/25 which gives you 0.12

Answer:

A 4/5 × 10 1/2 =8.4

B 2 1/2 × 16/5 =8

C 3 2/3 × 2 1/2 = 330/36 = 9.1666

D 20/3 × 9/10 =6

C IS THE GREATEST because 9.166 is greater than 8.4, 8 and 6

Answer:

There are 4 possible answers:

1.) Pair 1 and 3

2.) Pair 3 and 4

3.) Pair 4 and 2

4.) Pair 2 and 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Supplementary angles are 2 or more angles who's sum add up to 180°. If two angles make a straight angle they are supplementary.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

F=dA  

dF=0  

d⋆F=⋆J  

where in fact the second equality is not needed because of the identity  d2=0 . In abstract tensor notation, these equations expand to

Fab=2∇[aAb]  

∇[aFbc]=0  

∇aFab=Jb  

where in the above, additional compact notation has been used to simplify things: square brackets mean antisymmetrizing indices, and the covariant derivative  ∇a  is related to a flat derivative  ∂a  and a connection  Γbac . Now, performing a 3+1 decomposition (here in flat space-time) Maxwell's equations break down as

∇⋅B⃗ =0  

∇⋅E⃗ =4πρ  

∂B⃗ ∂t=−∇×B⃗  

∂E⃗ ∂t=+∇×B⃗ −4πJ⃗ .  

In the above, there is yet more compactifying notation: the divergence is defined as

∇⋅v⃗ =∂vi∂xi  

and the curl is defined as

(∇×v⃗ )i=ϵijk∂vk∂xj.  

In the above, still more compactifying notation has been used, namely the Einstein summation convention. Written out in components, the divergence is

∇⋅v⃗ =∂vx∂x+∂vy∂y+∂vz∂z  

and curl is defined as

(∇×v⃗ )z=∂vy∂x−∂vx∂y  

and similarly for the other two components.

As you can see, the extremely compact and powerful notation

dF=0  

d⋆F=⋆J  

expands out to a large set of component equations—but they have the same content, so it's not very meaningful that the equations in components are much longer than in terms of differential forms.

As another example, Elson Liu answered with an exploded-out form of the Standard Model Lagrangian. However, it can be written much more compactly:

L=LYM+LHiggs+Llep.+Lqrk.+LYuk.  

where

LYM=−14TrFabFab  

LHiggs=−(Daϕ†)(Daϕ)+14λ(ϕ†ϕ−12v2)2  

Llep.=iℓ†I/DℓI+ie¯†I/De¯I  

Lqrk.=iq†I/DqI+iu¯†I/Du¯+id¯†I/Dd¯I  

LYuk.=−yIJϕℓIe¯J−y′IJϕqId¯J  

−y′′IJϕ†qIu¯J+h.c.  

and specifying that F is the curvature on the gauge group  G≃SU(3)⊗SU(2)⊗U(1) ,  Da  is the gauge covariant derivative on G,  /D  is the gauge covariant Dirac operator on G, and specifying the representations of the fields: the scalar  ϕ  in the rep (1,2,-1/2), and the fermions  ℓ  in the rep (1,2,-1/2),  e¯  in (1,1,+1),  q  in (3,2,+1/6),  u¯  in  (3¯,1,−2/3) , and  d¯  in  (3¯,1,+1/3) ; where I is a generation index running over 1,2,3, and where everything else is a constant.

Step-by-step explanation:

answer:

a)

step-by-step explanation:

the explanation is the picture

**edit** i didn't realize that the words got 'deleted' but here's the order i put them in country, hip-hop, pop, and rock i'm sorry about the inconvinence

good luck :)

i hope this help

brainliest would be highly appreciated

have a nice day!

Answer:

The answer is A.

I took the test and got it right. Hope this helps!

Have a good day :)

~Amy❤

Step-by-step explanation/ Answers

because you have 5% possibilities and a total of 100%. You divide

100 by 5 and then you get 20 so that is for question 5

for question 6 it would be 80 because 100 - 20 is 80

for question 7 it will be 40 because 20 + 20 is 40

hopes this helps

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Although there is not much info on this question, if you were to assume that there are 3 different answers or 3 different methods of solving that problem, it is definitey possible to assume that this is possible.

Answer:

He has about D

Step-by-step explanation:

I tried to do the math the exact answer I got was 216 so i may be wrong.

Answer: 35 :)

Step-by-step explanation: If 100% means full then we should find the amount that they already used which was 65 and then minus 100 was 35 :) Brainliest would be appreciated.

Answer: the answar is 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: y=6n+m

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

V=14

Step-by-step explanation:

Well its a supplementary angle if you add everything together.

We know theres a 90 degrees angle and a 34 degree angle.

90+34=124

124+4v=180

Since if you add everything up its a straight line

Solve the equation normally

56=4v

14=v

Answer:

length and width

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 109

2. 52

3. 4

4. 89

5. 111

6. 72

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

3 1/5

Answer:

[tex]\frac{16}{5}[/tex] or 3 [tex]\frac{1}{5}[/tex] or 3.2

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve we must divide 16/5.

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1) x-3=0

4) 6=2x

6) x²=9

Step-by-step explanation:

x-3=0

x=3

----

1+x = 2

x = 2-1

x = 1

----

9-x=3

9-3=x

6=x

----

6=2x

6/2=x

3=x

----

x/5=3

x=3*5

x=15

----

x²=9

x=±3

These are the value of x solved for each equations. If you have any questions, feel free to ask.

Answer:

1. yes

2. no

3. no

4. yes

5. no

6. yes

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of the spinner landing on A is 3/8, the probability of the spinner not landing on C or E is 1/2

It is defined as the ratio of the number of favourable outcomes to the total number of outcomes, in other words, the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

1) What is the probability of the spinner landing on A:

Total outcomes = 8

Total favourable = 3 (A repeated 3 times)

Probability = 3/8

2) Do you have an equal chance of landing on either B or E:

No, because the probability for B is 1/8 and the probability for E is 3/8

3) What is the probability of the spinner not landing on C or E:

P(not landing on C or E) = 4/8 = 1/2

4) Do you have an equal chance of landing on either B or C:

Yes, because both event has same probability = 1/8

5) What is the probability of the spinner not landing on A or E:

P(not landing on A or E) = 2/8 = 1/4

6) What is the probability of the spinner landing on C or E:

P(landing on C or E) = 4/8 = 1/2

7) What is the probability of the spinner not landing on A or B:

P(not landing on A or B) = 4/8 = 1/2

Similarly, we can find the rest of the probability.

Thus, the probability of the spinner landing on A is 3/8, the probability of the spinner not landing on C or E is 1/2

Learn more about the probability here:

brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ2

Answer:

k=18

Step-by-step explanation:

have a good day :)

Answer:

k = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

-9 = k/(6-8)

Multiply both sides by (6-8)

(6-8)-9=k

solve.

k = 18

Answer:

126 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

I will send you a photo that has the step by step explanation