Answer:
Explanation:
Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels - this increases the risk for CVD as it also brings about CHD
Having reduced HDL cholesterol levels- this increases the risk of CVD as a low HDL increases omes risk of CVD at lower rates
Being a premenopausal woman - I dont think this has any effect on the risk for CVD
Being exposed to secondhand smoke -
This also increases the risk of stroke associated with CVD
- participating in exercise: this decreases the risk of CVD
Having elevated HDL cholesterol levels - this decreases ones risk of CVD as it helps to clear cholesterol from arteries delivering them back to the lover and reducing the risk for CVD
Which of the following is not a cause of water pollution?
a jet fuel
b laundry soap
c ammonia
d none of the above
Answer:
D) none of the above
Explanation:
took the quiz on edgenudity
The right answer is (a) jet fuel.
What is water pollution?Water pollution refers to the presence or introduction of harmful substances or pollutants into bodies of water such as lakes, rivers, oceans, and groundwater.
These pollutants can come from a variety of sources, including natural and human-made sources. While there are many different types of pollutants that can cause water pollution, some of the most common sources of water pollution include:
Industrial waste: Industries and factories release a variety of pollutants into water bodies, such as chemicals, heavy metals, and organic compounds.
Agricultural runoff: Fertilizers and pesticides used in agriculture can leach into waterways and cause significant pollution. Agricultural runoff can also contain soil, animal waste, and other contaminants that can degrade water quality.
Sewage and wastewater: Sewage and wastewater from homes and businesses contain a wide range of pollutants, including human waste, chemicals, and pharmaceuticals. These pollutants can have serious impacts on aquatic life and human health.
A jet fuel is not typically a cause of water pollution. While spills of jet fuel or other petroleum products can occur and can cause significant harm to aquatic ecosystems, they are not one of the most common causes of water pollution.
The most common causes of water pollution include things like industrial waste, agricultural runoff, sewage and wastewater, and improper disposal of household chemicals and medications.
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carbohydrates are used for what
Carbohydrates are used for short term energy. It also stores energy.
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Function of carbohydrates
Carbohydrates provide fuel for the central nervous system and energy for working muscles. They also prevent protein from being used as an energy source and enable fat metabolism, according to Iowa State University. Also, "carbohydrates are important for brain function," Smathers said.
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proof that something is true is called
evidence
opinion
Obelief
claim
Answer:
Evidence
Explanation:
Evidence is proof that something is true
Is it important before a blood transfusion to know blood types? Why? What are the benefits or consequences?
Answer:
It is extremely important to know all types of blood because if you donate the wrong type of blood to another person, he/she will get sick.
Explanation:
Hemolytic transfusion reactions can cause the most serious problems, but these are rare. These reactions can occur when your ABO or Rh blood type and that of the transfused blood do not match. If this happens, your immune system attacks the transfused red blood cells. This can be extremely life-threatening.
Why would a drop in blood pH have an undesirable effect on the proximal histidine's function?a. A drop in pH would make deprotonation more likely, and a deprotonated proximal histidine would be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme.b. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to donate its electron density to the iron atom.c. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme due to its positive charge.
Answer:
c. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme due to its positive charge.
Explanation:
Protonation refers to the addition of proton or H+ to the atom or molecule. If the pH of blood drop means acidic so it causes adverse effect on the function of proximal histidine because the proximal histidine gain proton and become cation. Due to this proton, proximal histidine is unable to make hydrogen bond between heme and oxygen and the blood is unable to transport more oxygen with hemoglobin from the lungs.
1. What were the first living things on Earth?
Answer:
prokaryotes
Explanation:
What happens during telophase of the cell cycle? A. Chromosomes are pulled apart. B. Chromosomes line up. C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears. D. Chromosomes condense
Answer:
C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears.
Explanation:
Answer: C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears.
Explanation:
Telophase is the final stage of the cell cycle which involves the separation of daughter cells.
Hope it helps .
Which of the following statements about cell differentiation is true?
A. Cell differentiation occurs only in adult organisms
B. Cell differentiation cannot be affected by the environment
C. Cells differentiate because the dna in each cell of an organism is different
D. Cells differentiate because different areas of the dna are activated in each cell type.
Answer:
I think is B, Cell differentiation cannot be affected by the enviroment
How many groups are in the modem periodic table
Answer:
The correct answer is
18
Groups of the periodic table: The s-, p-, and d-block elements of the periodic table are arranged into 18 numbered columns, or groups.
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true or false if you click on the name of a structure you identified incorrectly or correctly you will be taken to the module in APR where you can review this structure
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
When you are given a given structure and you ick on it to know if its correct or wrong you will be taken to a module on APR where u can review this structure and see clearly if it's right or wrong. That is how the website as be programmed. Once you click on it, u are automatically directed to APR to review and clarify your answers.
How digestive enzyme affected when people having high fever? Explain.
Higher the body temperature, it would disrupt the shape of the active site of the enzyme , which will reduce its activity, or prevent it from working. The enzyme will have been denatured also the protein which can also lead to death.
Answer:
When a person has high fever, it's body temperature increases.
When the temperature is too high, enzyme molecules vibrate vigorously causing it to lost it's shapes and active sites.
Then, started to denatured and eventually, the enzyme died and no longer able to function.
Why are detritivores, decomposers and omnivores not assigned trophic levels
Answer:
The reason is because detritivores and decomposers and omnivores are multilevel food chain consumers in an ecosystem making them not qualified to be assigned to a given trophic level
Explanation:
An organism is placed in a trophic level based the level it is from where the food chain starts with the start of the food chain having a level of 1 for the food producers such including plants and algae
Level 2 organisms are called primary consumers and consists of organism that eat only plants known as herbivores such as cattle
Level 3 organisms are called secondary consumers and consists of animal eating organism known as carnivores such as foxes etc.
Level 4 organisms are called tertiary consumers
Level 5 organisms are the a p e x p r e d a t o r s
Detritivores and decomposers such as bacteria, earthworm flies fungi consume the wastes produced at all trophic levels, therefore they cannot be assigned to a particular trophic level
Similarly, omnivores consumes both plants at level 2 and animals at level 3 making it ambiguous to assign them to one particular trophic level.
what is the purpose of RNA
RNA, in one form or another, touches nearly everything in a cell. RNA carries out a broad range of functions, from translating genetic information into the molecular machines and structures of the cell to regulating the activity of genes during development, cellular differentiation, and changing environments.
Answer:
RNA is to carry info of amino acid sequence from the genes to where proteins are assembled on ribosomes in the cytoplasm
in what way do these trees suggest that some of these species of blood flukes have switched hots?
Answer:
Prevention. The basic means of preventing Schistosoma infection is avoiding contact with fresh water infested with Schistosome parasites. Swimming, wading, or any other aquatic activities in these bodies of water exposes the skin to possible penetration by the cercariae.Explanation:
Sleve tubes are found in which vascular tissue?
OA. phloem
OB. xylem
Oc.
tracheids
Answer:
A. phloem
Explanation:
The graph below compares the rates of reaction of a burning candle and an exploding firework.
Comparing Chemical Reactions
A graph has time on the horizontal axis and concentration of reactants on the vertical axis. For an exploding firework, the concentration starts high, increases slightly and then decreases rapidly. For a burning candle the concentration starts high, increases more than the firework, and then decreases rapidly. The concentration for the burning candle is higher than the firework at all timepoints.
What can you conclude from the graph?
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs less rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs less rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
Answer:
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
Explanation:
The speed of a chemical reaction and the amount of energy required for this reaction is directly linked to the concentration of reagents present in the system. With that, we can say that the higher the concentration of reagents, the faster the chemical reaction will be due to the greater probability of collision between its molecules.
Although the reaction that causes a candle to burn has more reactants than the reaction that causes the fireworks to explode, the latter requires less energy to start. This makes the molecules of the reagents stir faster and collide more efficiently, making the reaction happen much faster.
In summary, the reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start and occurs more quickly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The rate of reaction refers to the ease with which reactants are converted to products. The higher the rate of reaction, the faster reactants are converted into products.
The activation energy is the energy required for reactants to be converted into products. It is an energy barrier that separates reactants and products.
From the description of the graphs, we are told that the reaction that causes the explosion of firework starts at high concentration, initially increases slightly then decreases rapidly. The fact that it initially increased slightly before decreasing rapidly implies that the high energy required for the reaction to start is high.
On the other hand, the reaction for the candle to burn starts at high concentration, increases more than the firework, and then decreases rapidly because the reaction requires a lesser energy to commence than the reaction for the burning of candle.
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Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging.Fluoroquinolones act by inhibiting DNA gyrase, an enzyme involved in DNA replication. Resistance to this antibiotic is most commonly by a. due to a mutation in the gene that encodes RNA polymerase, an example of adaptive resistance. b. a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of acquired resistance increased efflux of the drug from the target cell, an example of innate resistance. c. a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of innate resistance. d. enzymatic modification of the ribosomal target, an example of innate resistance.
Answer:
The correct answer is option b, that is, a modification in the target of DNA gyrase, is an illustration of acquired resistance.
Explanation:
The activity of DNA gyrase gets inhibit by fluoroquinolones. The enzyme that combines with the DNA and prevents its supercoiling at the time of replication is termed as DNA gyrase. It is a heterotetramer, which is formed of two subunits of GyrA and two subunits of GyrB. Due to the mutation in gene gyrA, the development of resistance takes place in N. gonorrhea against fluoroquinolones.
Post mutation, gyrA exhibits lesser binding capacity with the fluoroquinolones, and thus, the development of resistance takes place within the bacteria against the fluoroquinolones. The phenomenon of the development of resistance taking place in any microbe against the specific antimicrobial agent for whom it was vulnerable before is termed as acquired resistance, thus, the given case is an illustration of acquired resistance.
A biology teacher takes fish, algae, pond weed, invertebrates, and bottom muck from a local pond and establishes them in an aquarium. When the system is stable, the teacher seals it into a large, airtight glass box and leaves the box in a sunny location. After 3 months, the organisms in the aquarium appear alive and healthy. Which of the following statements about the experiment is NOT correct? For EACH one of the choices indicate if it is a correct or incorrect statement and explain why (the explanation MUST include the information covered in class)
A) During the 3 months, the biomass of plant life was greater than the biomass of animal life.
B) No energy has entered or left the glass box during the 3 months,
C) Some atoms from water molecules have become parts of organic molecules,
D) The air in the glass box contains carbon dioxide.
E) Some of the energy in the system has moved from one organism to another during the 3 months
Answer:
E
Explanation:
Some are heterotrophic and the other are autotrophic.
Some of the energy in the system has moved from one organism to another during the 3 months. Hence option E is correct.
What is aquarium?Aquarium is defined as any size tank with at least one transparent side used to house and display aquatic plants and animals. Like zoos, aquariums offer enjoyable leisure and amusement activities that also serve as locations for scientific research, education, animal care, and conservation.
Your fish may die if there are any significant temperature variations in their tank. Do not place your tank close to cooling vents or in a location that gets a lot of sunlight. A steady water temperature of 72°F to 82°F is required for freshwater fish, while 75°F to 80°F is ideal for saltwater fish.
Thus, some of the energy in the system has moved from one organism to another during the 3 months. Hence option E is correct.
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Female honey bees are diploid and male honey bees are haploid. The haploid males produce sperm and can successfully mate with diploid females. Fertilized eggs develop into females and unfertilized eggs develop into males. How does the process of sperm production in male honey bees differ from sperm production in other animals?
a. Male honey bees use meiosis I only, whereas other animals use both phases of meiosis.
b. Male honey bees use meiosis, whereas other animals use mitosis.
c. Male honey bees use mitosis, whereas other animals use meiosis.
d. Male honey bees can use mitosis or meiosis, whereas other animals can only use meiosis.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
In most of the male animals the production of sperms takes place through the process of meiosis. Meiosis occurs only in 2n or diploid cells. Thus the most of the animals produce sperm due to their diploid nature.
In male bees the sperm production is different than other animals as it is haploid cell and haploid cells produce sperms through mitosis. In haploid cells mitosis helps in produce more sperms.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
There are two different alleles for flower color, P and p. The image shows a purple sweet pea that is labeled with its two alleles for petal color. A purple sweet pea is labeled Upper P Upper P. Which is the genotype of the sweet pea?
Answer:
There is no diagram but the question can be answered using the description. The options to this question are:
Which is the genotype of the sweet pea?
A.heterozygous dominant
B.heterozygous recessive
C.homozygous dominant
D.homozygous recessive
The answer is C (homozygous dominant)
Explanation:
According to the question, a flower colour gene in a pea plant possesses two different alleles, P and p. Lettercase is used to illustrate that allele P (upper case) is dominant over allele p (lowercase) i.e P will be expressed over p in the flower colour gene.
According to the question, the pea plant exhibits a purple flower colour and is labelled as PP. This genotype is said to be homozygous because the same alleles (P) make up the plant's genotype. Since the allele P coding for purple coloration is dominant, the purple sweet pea is said to be HOMOZYGOUS dominant i.e. possess the same dominant alleles for that gene.
Answer:
[C] H D
(Brainly Marked It As An Inappropriate Word)
Explanation:
See Below
Which macromolecule is made up of nucleic acids ?
A. Sucrose
B. RNA
C. Fatty Acids
D. Protein
Answer:
Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
Explanation:
DNA (deoxyribonucleic corrosive) is the most widely recognized type of hereditary material found in numerous living beings.
Nucleic acids connect the two strands of the DNA double helix together.
RNA (ribonucleic corrosive) is additionally found as genetic material (and not DNA) in certain creatures like infections.
Infections could have ssRNA (single-stranded RNA) or dsRNA (double-stranded RNA) as their hereditary material.
However, RNA is generally single-stranded, in contrast to DNA, which is double-stranded consistently.
Another type of RNA is messenger RNA (mRNA), ribosomal RNA (rRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), etc
Which of the following statements is true regarding anabolism?
Choose 1 answer:
А) Energy is released during anabolic reactions.
B) In anabolism, larger molecules are made from smaller molecules.
C) Anabolism is the sum of all the chemical reactions in a cell.
D) Anabolism uses the process of hydrolysis to join molecules together.
Answer:
B) In anabolism, larger molecules are made from smaller molecules.
Explanation:
Anabolism is a metabolic process that uses up energy that is produced to build up complex and larger molecules from smaller ones. It is part of the chemical process that takes place in a cell.
For example, photosynthesis is an anabolic process, in which the cell forms larger molecules such as glucose from smaller molecules like water and carbon dioxide, with the use of solar energy.
Option B is true regarding anabolism.
2.Black fur(B) in guinea pigs is dominant over white fur(b). Find theprobability of an offspring with the same phenotype as its parents in across between a homozygous black and a heterozygous black guineapig
.A. 0%,
25%B.25%,
25%C.50%,50%
D.75%, 25%
E.100%, 0%
Answer:
Option d: black 75%, white 25%
Explanation:
The cross is between a homozygous black and a heterozygous black guinea pig
Parents gen. BB x Bb
F1 generation BB Bb Bb bb
The probability of an offspring with the same phenotype as its parents is
Genotype: BB - 25% and Bb - 50%, bb-25%
Phenotype: black 75%, white 25%
Which statement describes a feature of equal are projection?
Option C
Latitude lines meet at the poles.
Explanation:
Several equivalent projections were developed in an attempt to minimize the distortion of countries and continents of planet Earth,keeping the area constant.
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Answer:
c
Explanation:
i did it already
73 The messenger RNA sequence that codes for the amino acid chain
TYR-ARG-GLY-VAL-ALA-LEU is
(1) UAU-CGA-GUU-UUU-UUA-CUC
O (2) UAU-CGA-GGA-GUU-GCG-CUC
O (3) CUC-GCG-GUU-GGA-CGA-UAU
O (4) CUC-UUA-UUU-GUU-CGA-UAU
Answer:
(2) UAU-CGA-GGA-GUU-GCG-CUC
Explanation:
The mRNA is produced by the process of transcription which transcribes the DNA to mRNA which can be recognised and read by the ribosomes.
The ribosomal subunits get attached to the mRNA which scans or read the mRNA in the form of codons or triplets of nucleotides. These codons code for particular amino acid and about 64 codons code for 21 amino acids.
In the given question, the sequence of the amino acids in the peptide has been provided based on which the sequence of codons can be easily decoded.
For the provided peptide, the sequence of amino acid will be Option-2 which is UAU-CGA-GGA-GUU-GCG-CUC as this sequence of codons has the codons arranged according to the sequence of the amino acid.
Thus, Option-2 is the correct answer.
UAU-CGA-GGA-GUU-GCG-CUC is the sequence code that encodes the mRNA TYR-ARG-GLY-VAL-ALA-LEU
A codon table is usually employed in translating the genetic code into amino acid sequencesmRNA plays a major role in protein synthesis which originate from the joining together of individual amino acids in the ribosomes.
These amino acids are encoded by three letters that form a codon. There are 64 different codons in the genetic code encoding for the entire 20 amino acids.
The amino acid chain is thus decoded as:
TYR - UAUARG - CGAGLY - GGAVAL - GUUALA - GCGLEU - CUCTo learn more about the genetic code see the link: https://brainly.com/question/21272924?referrer=searchResults
2. The part of brain that is called ________ plays an important role in the consolidation of memories.
Answer:
Explanation:
The principal player in memory consolidation research, in terms of brain regions, is the hippocampus.
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Why does the growth of dodder eventually lead to the death of a host plant?
Answer:
it deprives the plant of nutrients
Explanation:
One element found in all living and dead organisms is ______.
Answer:
hydrozen............
......
i think!b..
You come upon an outcropping of sandstone while working in the field in Southern Utah. You notice cross-beds. Which of the following would you be able to determine about this deposit, just from looking at it? Group of answer choices A.the complete mineral composition of the sandstone B.the direction of the wind at the time it was deposited C.the tectonic history of the deposit D.the origin of the sand in the deposit
Answer:
B. the direction of the wind at the time it was deposited
Explanation:
Cross beds refers to those rock beds which are formed due to the deposition of bed forms such as dunes. These cross beds are the group of inclined layer which is formed due to the flowing of water or wind. These rock beds represents the movement or direction of wind and water at the time of deposition and as a result cross beds are formed. So we can say that cross beds were formed due to the direction of wind.
These five concepts provide a modem interpretation of Mendelian postulates.
- Inheritance is governed by information stored in discrete factors called genes.
- Genes are transmitted from generation to generation on vehicles called chromosomes.
- Chromosomes, which exist in pairs in diploid organisms, provide the basis of biparental inheritance.
- During gamete formation, chromosomes are distributed according to postulates first described by Gregor Mendel, based on his nineteenth-century research with the garden pea.
- Mendelian postulates prescribe that homologous chromosomes segregate from one another and assort independently with other segregating homologous during gamete formation.
Based on these concepts, choose statements that correlate Mendel's four postulates with what is now known about genes, alleles, and homologous chromosomes.
Select the five correct statements.
a. Some gene pairs on nonhomologous chromosomes can aggregate after separation and mitosis or meiosis would stop.
b. Some genes have dominant and recessive alleles.
c. Unit factors occur in pairs.
d. Some possible gametic combinations are formed with higher probability if dominant alleles take part in meiosis.
e. During mitosis and meiosis, when chromosomes are visible in their characteristic shapes. members of a homologous pair have different sizes and exhibit opposite centromere locations.
f. Different gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes will separate independently from each other during meiosis.
g. Alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation at anaphase
h. Dominant alleles can become codominant alleles during mitosis.
e. One gene pair separates independently from other gene pairs.
Answer:
b. Some genes have dominant and recessive alleles.
C. Unit factors occur in pairs.
e. During mitosis and meiosis, when chromosomes are visible in their characteristic shapes. members of a homologous pair have different sizes and exhibit opposite centromere locations
f. Different gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes will separate independently from each other during meiosis.
g. Alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation at anaphase
Explanation:
Mendel's postulates of inheritance are: (1) Principles of Paired Factors (2) Principle of Dominance(3) Law of Segregation or Law of Purity of Gametes (Mendel’s First Law of Inheritance) and (4) Law of Independent Assortment (Mendel’s Second Law of Inheritance).
Each of these laws provide information on how inheritance of traits by offspring from parents occur.
Principle of paired factors:
A character is represented in an organism (diploid) by at least two factors. The two factors lie on the two homologous chromosomes at the same locus or position.
Principle of Dominance:
Dominant characters are those which always appear in every generatio whereas recessive characters may not appear in some generations e.g. F1 generation.
Law of segregation:
During the formation of gametes (egg or pollen), the paired genes separate or segregate randomly so that each gamete receives one or the other with equal likelihood
Law of Independent assortment:
During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors (genes) assort independently of each other.
From the above consideration,
Option A is wrong because it doesn't correlate with the law of Independent assortment
Option B is correct based on the second postulate
Option C is correct based on the first postulate
Option D is wrong based on the law of segregation which assigns equal likely to gene separation
Option E is correct based on recent studies of genes
Option F is correct based on the law of Independent assortment
Option G is correct based on recent studies on genes
Option H is wrong because dominant genes remain dominant. Co-dominance occurs when allelic pairs are neither dominant nor recessive
Option 'e' is wrong because independent assortment occurs between pairs of genes with contrasting character not a gene pair having the same character where only segregation occurs.