Help please ASAP. Correct answer will get brainly

Answer:

The midpoint of [tex]\overline{BD}[/tex] is [tex](\frac{a}{2},\frac{a}{2})[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided information.

We need to find the midpoint of [tex]\overline{BD}[/tex].

For this, we will use the midpoint formula: [tex]M=(\frac{x_1+x_2}{2},\frac{y_1+y_2}{2})[/tex]

Now put [tex](x_1,y_1)=(0,a)[/tex] and [tex](x_2,y_2)=(a,0)[/tex] in the above formula and solve for M.

[tex]M=(\frac{0+a}{2},\frac{a+0}{2})[/tex]

[tex]M=(\frac{a}{2},\frac{a}{2})[/tex]

Hence, the midpoint of [tex]\overline{BD}[/tex] is [tex](\frac{a}{2},\frac{a}{2})[/tex].

Answers:

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Explanation:

The two factors are (a+b+c) and (d+e+f). A factor is a part of multiplication. So in general if we multiply x and y, then x and y are factors to lead to the product x*y.

The expression a+b+c has three terms. Each term is separated by a plus sign.

The expression d+e+f also has three terms.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

17) HI ≅ UH   ;   GH  ≅  TU     ; GI  ≅ TH

ΔHGI  ≅ ΔUTH                by Side Side Side congruent

∠G  ≅  ∠T   ; GI  ≅  TH  ; ∠GIH  ≅ ∠THU

ΔHGI  ≅ ΔUTH                by Angel Side Angle congruent

19) IJ ≅ KD   ;  IK ≅ KC   ; KJ ≅ CD

ΔIJK ≅ ΔKDC             by Side Side Side congruent

∠J ≅ ∠D    ; IJ ≅ KD ;  ∠I ≅ ∠DKC

ΔIJK ≅ ΔKDC             by Angle Side Angle congruent

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer is there the value of this

Answer:

x=29

Step-by-step explanation:

1x-19=10

1x=29

Answer: 64/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Options :

No, the sample size is too small.

Yes, the x distribution is normal with mean μ x = 66 and σ x = 1.5.

Yes, the x distribution is normal with mean μ x = 66 and σ x = 6.

Yes, the x distribution is normal with mean μ x = 66 and σ x = 0.4.

Answer:

No, the sample size is too small.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

Mean, μ = 74

Standard deviation, σ = 8

Sample size, n = 16

Based on the information given, in other to be able to make inference on the x distribution of sample means, then the size of the sample of utmost importance in statistic. Large sample sizes (usually > 30) gives are always required as sampling distribution conform to the population distribution Inn terms of mean as the sample size grows larger as the distributon becomes approximately normal.

However, the sample size given above is well below 30.hence, making it difficult to say anything about the distribution of sample means

Answer:

1/10

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert a ratio to a fraction, you divide the number on the left by the number on the right. This gets you (3/5)/6. When dividing fractions by whole numbers, you need to convert the whole number to a fraction. I converted 6 to 6/1, so that gave me (3/5)/(6/1). You then multiply the top number by the bottom number to get the numerator of the answer, and the middle 2 numbers multiplied is the denominator. The answer is (3x1)/(5x6), or 3/30, which can be simplified to 1/10.

Answer:

60%

Step-by-step explanation:

1740 / 2900 = 0.6

Answer: The rate is increasing upwards, if that is what you were asking?

Step-by-step explanation: Let me know if you need anything else, please :)

The rate of change for payment option 1 is 1 and for payment option 2 is 0.25.

At 4th visit the cost of both the plans will be same.

The slope is the rate of change of the y-axis with respect to the x-axis.

The equation of a line in slope-intercept form is y = mx + b, where

slope = m and y-intercept = b.

We know the greater the absolute value of a slope is the more steeper is its graph or the rate of change is large.

We know the slope m = (y₂ - y₁)/(x₂ - x₁).

Payment option 1 has two points (0, 2) and (2, 4).

Slope(m₁) = (4 - 2)/(2 - 0).

Slope(m₁) = 2/2

Slope(m₁) = 1.

4 = 2(1) + b.

b = 2.

y = x + 2.

Payment option 2 has,

$0.25 every visit is $(1/4) and it is the rate of change or the slope.

y = 0.25x + 5.

The number of visits when the cost will be equal is when we'll equate these two equations,

x + 2 = 0.25x + 5.

x - 0.25x = 5 - 2.

0.75x = 3.

x = 3/0.75.

x = 4.

At 4 visits the cost of each plan will be the same.

learn more about lines and slopes here :

https://brainly.com/question/16180119

#SPJ2

Answer:

Factors of 432 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 16, 18, 24, 27, 36, 48, 54, 72, 108, 144, 216. There are 19 integers that are factors of 432. The biggest factor of 432 is 216.

Those are the factors of 432

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the initial number be x

Sold 1/3x, and now has:

Bought 84 more and now got 178:

Jessica had 141 records initially

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  1) 135°

  2) 0.77 units

  3) 0.92 units

  4) 6.12 units

  5) 2.83 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

1) The exterior angle at any vertex is 360°/n, where n is the number of sides. For the octagon, the exterior angle is 360°/8 = 45°. The interior angle will be the supplement of this: 180° -45° = 135°.

The measure of each interior angle is 135°.

__

2) Each sector of the octagon is an isosceles triangle with a central angle of 45° (also 360°/8). Since the radius is 1 unit, the length of one side is twice the sine of half the central angle.

  s = 2·sin(45°/2) ≈ 0.765367

The length of one side is about 0.77 units.

__

3) Similarly, the apothem is the cosine of half the central angle:

  a = cos(45°/2) ≈ 0.923880

The apothem is about 0.92 units.

__

4) For an octagon, the perimeter is 8 times the length of one side.

  P = 8s = 8(0.765367) ≈ 6.12293

The perimeter is about 6.12 units.

__

5) The area of one sector (isosceles triangle) is given by the formula ...

  A = (1/2)bh

  A = 1/2sa ≈ 1/2(0.765367)(0.923880) ≈ 0.353553

Then the area of the octagon is 8 times this:

  A = 8(sector area) = 8(0.353553) ≈ 2.82843

The octagon area is about 2.83 square units.

Answer:

I'm pretty sure the answer is A.

Step-by-step explanation:

y = x^3 + 1 is a place in a linear graph.

Answer:

option B

Step-by-step explanation:

In terms of π

Area =πr²

Area=π×9²cm

Area=81π sq cm

Answer:

x²-(10-3)x-30

x²-10x-3x-30

x(x-10)-3(x-10)

(x-3)(x-10)

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps! Stay safe <3

Answer:

y= 6x+ 5 hope this helps ! please give brainlist ):

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

My answer is Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

did u ever get the answers for it lol. i need help on it too

Answer:

ok so i had this for my stat class and i came on here to try and figure it out but didn't find any answers, so i just went ahead and tried it for myself. i'm not sure if i'm 100% correct, so if anyone knows the right answers leave a comment / post the right answers

ALSO my stat teacher gave us this exact assignment with these exact pictures so if ur gonna use these answers make sure you paraphrase them/reword them as best as you can

a) Briefly compare these distributions.

The distribution of passing ability for Manning’s passes in domes is relatively symmetrical while the distribution of his passes outside is skewed to the left. The distribution of outside performances varies slightly more than that of his performances within domes; outside performances vary from about 40-160 while performances in domes vary from about 60-160 (passer ratings).

b) State the hypotheses we are interested in testing.

H(o): Peyton Manning does not have a greater passing ability in domes than outside.

H(a): Peyton Manning has a greater passing ability in domes than outside.

c) Manning’s mean passer rating in domes was 109.3 and his mean passer rating outside was 89.8, for a difference (dome – outside) of 19.5. Describe how to simulate the distribution of this test statistic, assuming that Manning’s ability is the same in both locations.

1. Using 104 note cards, write each deviation on a different note card.

2. Shuffle the cards and divide them into two groups; one for passes outside, and one for passes within a dome.

3. Calculate and record the simulated difference (dome - outside) in standard deviation for the two types of pitches.

4. Repeat many times.

d. Here are the results of 100 trials of the simulation from part c. Describe what information is provided by the dotplot.

The dotplot illustrates the simulation repeated 100 times, with each dot representing a difference between the difference (dome - outside) for each individual simulation.

e) Use the dotplot to estimate and interpret the p-value.

Because there are no dots greater than or equal to our previously calculated difference of 19.5, the p-value = 0/100 = 0.

f) Using the p-value from part e, make an appropriate conclusion.

Since it is impossible (p = 0) to have a difference (dome - outside) in observed standard deviations of 19.5 or more by random chance alone when the true standard deviation of Manning’s passes was the same inside and outside a dome, there is convincing evidence that the true standard deviation of Manning’s passes was greater for his passes in a dome than outside a dome.

g) If there is convincing evidence that Manning had a greater ability in domes, can we conclude that the dome is the cause? Explain.

We can never 100% conclude that the dome is the primary cause of his better performance within domes. Other things like wind, crowd cheering, motivation, and teamwork could be some of the various causes of his better performance.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 520

Step-by-step explanation:

Total choices for letters = upper case letters (26) + lower case letters (26).

= 26+26 = 52

Choices for digits = 10

By Fundamental counting principle,

The different five character passwords can be created = (Choices for letters) x (Choices for digits)

= 52 x  10

= 520

Hence, the number of different five character passwords can be created = 520

Step-by-step explanation:

a) 2+ (3.5kg × number of week respectively) :*assuming 2kg collected for c tree is included

b) y=2+3.5x

c) (26.5kg-2kg)÷ 3.5kg= 7 weeks

d) ???

Answer:

Try the third option

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3rd one

Step-by-step explanation:

it just is lol

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

3x - 7 = x² - 5x + 5

x² - 5x + 5 - 3x + 7 = 0

x² - 8x + 12 = 0

(x-6)(x-2)=0

x = 6

x = 2

Answer:

B)

Step-by-step explanation:

8 is even number which uses each of the digits exactly once.

Answer:

The one of -[n+2n+3n+4n]/nlne(10) has fewer operations because the value of n is static.

The one of n! ( factorial ) is factorised up to n∞ hence has infinity operations.

Answer:

18m³+2m²-m

Step-by-step explanation:

(5m³+3m²-2m)+(8m³-4m²+3m)=13m³-m²+m+(5m³+3m²-2m)=18m³+2m²-m