NEED HELP ASAP
You find the following Treasury bond quotes. To calculate the number of years until maturity, assume that it is currently May 2019 and the bond has a par value of $1,000. Rate Maturity Mo/Yr Bid Asked Chg Ask Yld ?? May 24 103.4690 103.5418 +.3093 6.119 5.524 May 29 104.5030 104.6487 +.4365 ?? 6.193 May 39 ?? ?? +.5483 4.151 In the above table, find the Treasury bond that matures in May 2029. What is your yield to maturity if you buy this bond? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

Answer:

$39,053

Explanation:

The computation of the ending inventory is shown below:

Beginning inventory $52,600  

Add: Inventory purchased $297,000

Add: Freight in $9,400

Less: Merchandise returned -$2,100

Less: Discounts -$8,847 ($297,000 - $2,100) × 3%

Less: Cost of goods sold -$309,000

Ending inventory $39,053

Hence, the ending inventory using the gross method is $39,053

Answer:

3.44%

Explanation:

For computing the after tax cost of debt we need to apply the RATE formula i.e shown in the attachment below:

Provided that,  

Present value = $1,061

Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 6.1% ÷ 2 = $30.5

NPER = 25 years × 2 = 50 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after applying the above formula,

1. The pretax cost of debt is 2.82% × 2 = 5.64%

2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be

= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)

= 5.64% × ( 1 - 0.39)

= 3.44%

Answer:

The nominal annual interest rate is 6%

Explanation:

The future value of a sum of money an be calculated as follows,

FV = PV (1+i)^n

Where,

As we already know the FV, the PV and the number of compounding periods, we can calculate the value of i. The value of i here represents the nominal annual interest rate denominated in monthly terms.

Annual interest rate denominated in monthly terms = Annual i / 12

As the total period in years is 5 years, the total period in monthly terms will be 5 * 12  = 60. So n is 60.

Plugging in the available values, we get the following expression which should be solved to get the monthly i.

1618.62  =  1200 * (1+i)^60

1618.62 / 1200 = (1+i)^60

1.34885 = (1+i)^60

Taking the 60th root of both sides.

(1.34885)^1/60  =  (1+i)^60/60

1.004999998  =  1 + i

1.00499998 - 1  = i

i = 0.00499998 rounded off to 0.005 or 0.5%

If the annual interest rate denominated in monthly terms is is 0.005 or 0.5%, then the annual interest rate is,

Annual interest rate = 0.005 * 12   = 0.06 or 6%

Answer:

Direct labour cost budget= $1,413,000.

Explanation:

The direct labor cost budget is a function of the production product budget. The quantity of the product budgeted to be produced would determine the labor cost budget.

Direct labour budget = Production budget × standard  hours × standard labour rate per hour

Standard hour = 6/60 =0.1  (note there are 60 minutes in an hour)

Direct labour budget = 785,000 ×  0.1× 18 =  $1,413,000.

Direct labour cost budget= $1,413,000.

Answer:

The value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today will be $16.42

Explanation:

In order to calculate the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today we would have to calculate the following steps:

Step-1, Dividend for the next 2 years

Dividend per share in Year 0 (D0) = $1.20 per share

Dividend per share in Year 1 (D1) = $1.4400 per share [$1.20 x 120%]

Dividend per share in Year 2 (D2) = $1.7280 per share [$1.4400 x 120%]

Step-2, Share Price in Year 2

Dividend Growth Rate after Year 2 (g) = 4.00% per year

Required Rate of Return (Ke) = 14.00%

Share Price in Year 2 (P2) = D2(1 + g) / (Ke – g)

= $1.7280(1 + 0.04) / (0.14 – 0.04)

= $1.7971 / 0.10

= $17.97 per share

Step-3, The Current Stock Price

As per Dividend Discount Model, Current Stock Price the aggregate of the Present Value of the future dividend payments and the present value the share price in year 2

Year      Cash flow ($)        PVF at 14.00%           Present Value of cash flows ($)

                                                                             [Cash flows x PVF]

1            1.4400                   0.877193                           1.26

2           1.7280                  0.769468                          1.33

2            17.97                   0.769468                          13.83

TOTAL   16.42

Hence, the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today will be $16.42

Answer:

$250 is the change in social surplus attributable to the increase in the toll

Explanation:

Suppose the government increase in toll on a certain stretch of highways by this caused a dead-weight loss occur and then resulting full in the number of cars using the highway.

Dead-weight loss = (0.5) (0.50-0.40) (50,000-45,000)

Dead-weight loss = 0.5 * 0.10 * 5000

Dead-weight loss = $250

The increase paid by other remaining drivers (0.50-0.40)(40,000) can be viewed as transfer from drivers to the government.

Answer: d. A price near $60

Explanation:

The Preferred Stock was selling at $56 then a notice was circulated that RMO would be calling the stock at a price of $60.

This $60 is more than the current $56 and so this will need to reflect in the price of the stock. The adjustment will cause the Preferred stock to start trading near $60 as traders will seek to take advantage of the impending call by buying at a lower price and thus making a bit of profit when the stock is called at $60. The market will adjust to this because the Preferred stock will be perceived as undervalued. A price closer to the Call price will therefore become the new price to properly value the stock.

Answer and Explanation:

1. The gross pay is

Straight time pay

= 40 hours × $30 per hour

= $1,200

overtime pay

= 40 hours × $30 per hour × 1.5

= $1,800

So, the total gross pay is

= $1,200 + $1,800

= $3,000

2. Now the net take home pay is

Gross pay                        $3,000

Less: deductions

Income tax withholding (20%)  -$600

Employee OASDI tax (6.2%)  -$186

Employee medicare tax (1.45%) -$43.50

Net take home pay $2,170.50

3. Now the journal entries are

Wages expense $3,000

             To Income tax payable $600

             To Employee OASDI tax payable $186

             To Employee medicare tax payable $43.50

             To wages payable $2,170.50

(Being the wages expense is recorded)

We debited the expenses as it increased the expenses and credited all liabilities it increased the liabilities  

Wages payable Dr $2,170.50

         To cash  $2,170.50

(being cash paid is recorded)

For recording this we debited the wages payable as it reduced the liabilities and credited the cash as it also reduced the current assets

Answer:

Patton Company should debit its Debt Investments account for the Scott Company bonds by $2,571  and credit its Interest Revenue account by $155,283

Explanation:

On July 1 2021, Patton Company should increase its Debt Investments account for the Scott Company bonds by =

Amount of discount amortized  = Interest revenue - Interest received

= ($1,410,375 × 11% × 6/12) - ($1,500,000 × 10% × 6/12)

= $77,571 - $75,000

= $2,571

Interest revenue on 31 December 2021 = ($1,410,375 + $2,571) × 11% × 6/12

= $77,712

For the year ended December 31, 2021, Patton Company should report interest revenue from the Scott Company bonds of = $77,571 + $77,712 = $155,283

Answer:$3,760--- Interest payable at December 31, 2021.

Explanation:

Interest payable is current  liability recorded on a firm's balance sheet that shows  the amount of interest which a firm owes currently but has not yet paid as of the date recorded on the of the balance sheet.

For daylight donuts

September --- December = 4 months

interest payable  within the four months= $188,000 X 6% X 4/12= $3,760

Daylight Donuts should report interest payable at December 31, 2021, in the amount of $3,760

Answer:

The correct answer is (D)

Explanation:

New classical "rational expectations" theories about how expectations are formed, are completely wrong. That is, prices and wages may not be free to adjust in response to policy changes.

This is the basis of New Keynesian economics, which emerged from the Classical Keynesian economics.

New Keynesian theorists argue that wages and prices are sticky (hardly adjust) in the face of short term fluctuations in the economy. This means or explains that short term federal monetary policies do not have such a great influence on wage level and price level in the macroeconomy.

Answer:

The pricing plan of the is even more immoral to buttress that the fact that brothel was encouraged, the fact that subscription packages was introduced will enhance the practice of prostitution which also has a pricing system which is aimed at I creasing the producer surplus.

Explanation:

Given the following :

Session - - - - - Willingness to Pay

1st - - - - - $105

2nd - - - - $90

3rd - - - - -$75

4th - - - - - $60

5th - - - - - $45

6th - - - - - $30

At price of $82.50 per session, the number of sessions demanded by this consumer will be 2.

Consumer surplus = ($105 - $82.50) = $22.50

Producer surplus = ($82.50 - $22.50) = $60

Answer:

7.  profits will decrease by:

8.  profits will decrease by:

9.  profits will increase by:

10.  profits will increase by:

13.  Since the profit margin per pound of direct materials used for Alphas = $7.67 and Betas = $4, the company should produce Alphas. It should produce 28,666 Alphas and 2 Betas. Total profits = $1,318,636 + $16 = $1,318,652

14.  Maximum contribution margin:

15.  Since the profit margin per pound of materials used Betas is only $4, there is not much room for increasing the materials costs. If you want to produce Betas, you would be willing to pay less than $9 per pound of direct materials.

But since the profit margin per pound of direct materials used on Alphas is much higher ($7.67), as long as you pay less than $12.97 per pound of direct materials you can still make a profit producing Alphas. So you could pay a much higher price if you wanted to produce Alphas and still make a profit.

Explanation:

                                                                Alpha          Beta

Sales price                                                $185         $120

Direct materials ($5 per pound)               $30           $10

pounds of materials used                           6               2

profit margin per pound                          $7.67          $4

Direct labor                                                $22          $29

Variable manufacturing overhead           $20           $13

Traceable fixed man. overhead               $24          $26

Variable selling expenses                        $20           $16

Common fixed expenses (unavoidable)  $23           $18

Total cost per unit                                    $139          $112

total production capacity 112,000 units per year

contribution margin = sales revenue - variable costs:

contribution margin Alpha = $185 - $93 = $92

contribution margin Beta = $120 - $68 = $52

Answer:

Data on U.S. GDP

a) The growth rate of nominal GDP between 1996 and 2016 was 131.72%, calculated as follows:

= (2016 nominal GDP - 2009 nominal GDP) / 2009 nominal GDP x 100

= (18,707 - 8,073)/ 8,073 x 100

= 131.72%

b) The growth rate of the GDP deflator between 1996 and 2016 was 44.75%, calculated as follows:

= (2016 GDP deflator - 1996 GDP deflator)/ 1996 GDP deflator x 100

= (105.93 - 73.18)/73.18 x 100

= 44.75%

Explanation:

1. Data on U.S. GDP

Year   Nominal GDP     GDP Deflator (Billions of dollars) (Base year 2009)

2016            18,707           105.93

1996             8,073             73.18

2. According to wikipedia.com, "the GDP deflator (implicit price deflator) is a measure of the level of prices of all new, domestically produced, final goods and services in an economy in a year."

3. Nominal GDP is a way of assessing an economy's economic production.  It includes the current prices of goods and services.  The GDP measures the monetary value of goods and services produced in an economy within a given period.

4. Growth rate refers to the percentage change of a specific variable within a specific time period.  It is calculated as the difference between the current year's variable and the base year's variable, divided by the base year's variable, and then multiplied by 100.

Answer:

The depreciation expense for 2021 would be: $6,880

Explanation:

Straight line method charges a fixed depreciation charge over the life of asset.

Depreciation Charge = (Cost - Residual Value) / Number of Estimated Useful life

                                   = ($76,000 - $7,200) / 10

                                   = $6,880

The amount of depreciation is charged at fixed amount of $6,880 for each of the years that this asset is in use in the business.

Conclusion :

The depreciation expense for 2021 would be: $6,880

Answer:

$26,000

Explanation:

                    Joy Elle’s Vegetable Market

               Cash flow from Financing Activities

Issuance of Stock                                          $50,000

Less: Repaid Note payable                          $22,000

Less: Paid Dividend                                       $2,000

Net Cash provided by financial activities  $26,000

-Acquired land by issuing common stock is a Non cash investing and financing activities under cash flow

-Sold a long-term investment for cash is an investing activities under cash flow

-Acquired an investment in IBM stock for cash is an Investing activities under Cash flow

Answer:

324.72

Explanation:

To get an income of $1, the man needs [tex]\frac{1000}{9.65}[/tex], therefore to get an income of $3000, the man needs [tex]\frac{1000*3000}{9.65}=310880.83[/tex].

Interest (i)= 8%/12 = 0.08/12 = 0.00667

Number of periods (N) = 12 months/year × 25 years = 300

Using actuarial notation:

[tex]Xs_{300/0.006667}=310880.83\\Where:\\s_{300/0.006667}=(1+0.006667)\frac{(1+0.006667)^{300}-1}{0.00667} =957.366[/tex]

Therefore:

[tex]957.366X=310880.83\\X=\frac{310880.83}{957.366} =324.72[/tex]

Answer:

b. Corrected 2020 cost of goods sold = $ 1,320,320.

b. Corrected retained earnings = $5,377,860.

Explanation:

a. Determine the corrected amounts for 2020 cost of goods sold

An overstatement of the beginning inventory has to be deducted from the reported cost of good sold since the amount of the overstatement was added to the cost of goods sold initially.

On the other hand, an overstatement of the ending inventory has to be added to the reported cost of good sold since the amount of the overstatement was deducted to the cost of goods sold initially.

Therefor, we have:

Corrected 2020 cost of goods sold = $1,385,600 - $103,320 + $38,040 = $ 1,320,320.

b. Determine the corrected amounts for December 31, 2020, retained earnings

In this case, the amount of overstatement of the ending inventory has to be deducted from the reported retained earning since the retained earning was initially overstated by that amount.

Therefore, we have:

Corrected retained earnings = $5,415,900 - $38,040 = $5,377,860

Answer:

=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;

The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.

Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.

= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.

Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .

Answer: a. $5000 b. $35000 c. Adele

Explanation:

The balance sheet is a report which summarizes all of an entity's assets, the liabilities, and the equity at a given point in time.

Based on the balance sheet in the question, the following can be calculated:

a. The 754 adjustment will be the difference in the sale of interest and Susan's capital balance. This will be:

= Sale of interest - Dusan's capital balance

= $35,000 - $30,000

= $5000

b. Adele's basis in the acquired interest will be the value at which she acquired the interest. This will be = $35,000

c. Adele is the partner who receives deductions related to the step-up

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Claimjumper Makeover

Total Sales:

Claimjumper= $116,000

Makeover= $58,000

Total= $174,000

Variable expenses:

Claimjumper= $35,800

Makeover= $7,700

Total= $43,500

Contribution margin:

Claimjumper= $80,200

Makeover= $50,300

Total= $130,500

Fixed expenses 83,250

Sales proportion:

Claimjumper= 116,000/174,000= 0.67

Makeover= 58,000/174,000= 0.33

Variable cost proportion:

Claimjumper= 35,800/43,500= 0.82

Makeover= 7,700/43,500= 0.18

First, we need to calculate the contribution margin ratio for the company:

Weighted average contribution margin ratio= (weighted average selling price - weighted average unitary variable cost)/ weighted average selling price

Weighted average contribution margin ratio= 130,500/174,000

Weighted average contribution margin ratio= 0.75

Now, we can calculate the break-even point in dollars:

Break-even point (dollars)= fixed costs/ Weighted average contribution margin ratio

Break-even point (dollars)= 83,250/0.75

Break-even point (dollars)= $111,000

Finally, we structure the income statement:

Sales= 111,000

Total variable costs= (111,000*0.25)= (27,750)

Income statement:

Sales:

Claimjumper= 111,000*0.67= 74,370

Makeover= 111,000*0.33= 36,630

Variable costs:

Claimjumper= 27,750*0.82= (22,755)

Makeover= 27,750*0.18= (4,995)

Contribution margin= 83,250

Fixed costs= 83,250

Net operating income= 0

Answer: provided in the explanation section

Explanation:

The process of diversification has to do with connecting to new business opportunity with the existing business. This business startegy helps the company to enter a new area of the market in which it is not currently working. The risk associated with it can or may not provide extraordinary benefits.

In these cases, there are positive factors that encourage diversification-

Other companies will handle the losses in the current company.

Unpleasant surprises can be offset by market diversification.

The resources used under these can be used in sports shoe styling in game simulation companies such as background designers, creative team and so on.

The customer base would be more like that, thereby reducing the attempt of the company to shape a whole new customer base.

If the gaming business starts to decline at any time, all its resources can be used in this new business.

There are always, however, factors which prevent such diversifications.

This can restrict business growth opportunities in the gaming sector as new companies can get investment that is needed to be more competitive.

More new skilled employees, equipment and resources will be needed as the production requires a whole new set of know-how and equipment.

A poorly managed diversification will cause existing businesses to suffer.

As this is a broad horizontal diversification, they can not respond with the same speed to market changes.

Cheers I hope this helps !!!

Answer:

1. The overall goal and/or purpose

The overall goal of this analysis is to determine if you would actually save money by purchasing the extended warranty.

2. The given information

You can calculate this by determining the present value of the expected repair costs that will be covered by the warranty and determine which is higher; the warranty or the repairs

3. A time-line for the expected repair costs covered by the warranty

4. The present value for each of the repair costs

the discount rate is 7%, so the present value of each repair cost is:

5. The present value of the warranty and the expected profit for the warranty company

the present value of the warranty is $1,800, so the car company is making $1,800 - $1,559 = $241 in profits by selling you the warranty

6. Your conclusion

You shouldn't buy the extended warranty (negative NPV)

Answer:

YTM = 6.51%

YTC = 6.40%

Explanation:

We need to solve using excel goal seek or bond formulas to generate the yield (interest rate) which matches the future couponb and maturity payment with the current selling price of the bond:

Present value of the coupon

[tex]C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\[/tex]

C 40.000 (1,000 x 8% / 2 payment per year)

time 28 (14 years x 2 payment per year)

rate 0.032529972 (generate using goal seek tool)

[tex]40 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0325299719911398)^{-28} }{0.0325299719911398} = PV\\[/tex]

PV $727.8688

Pv of the maturity (lump sum)

[tex]\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV[/tex]  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   28.00

rate  0.032529972

[tex]\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0325299719911398)^{28} } = PV[/tex]  

PV   408.06

PV c $727.8688

PV m  $408.0612

Total $1,135.9300

As this is a semiannual rate we multiply it by 2

0.032529972 x 2 = 0.065059944 = 6.51%

We repeat the procedure with changing the time and end-value to adjust for the callabe conditions:

[tex]C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\[/tex]

C 40.000

time 14 (7 years x 2 payment per year)

rate 0.032015131

[tex]40 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0320151313225188)^{-14} }{0.0320151313225188} = PV\\[/tex]

PV $445.6984

[tex]\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV[/tex]  

Maturity   1,073.00 (call price)

time   14.00

rate  0.032015131

[tex]\frac{1073}{(1 + 0.0320151313225188)^{14} } = PV[/tex]  

PV   690.23

PV c $445.6984

PV m  $690.2316

Total $1,135.9300

Againg his will be a semiannual rate so we multiply by two:

0.032015131 x 2 = 0.064030263 = 6.40%

Answer:

The Total cash inflows from operating activities are $553,000

Explanation:

According to the given data, the Statement of Cash Flow from Operating Activities would be as follows:

Statement of Cash Flow from Operating Activities  

Particulars Amount                             Total Amount

Income              $470,000  

Depreciation      $83,000  

Cash flow from operating activities        $553,000

The cash of $44,000 was borrowed on a 6-year note payable. It is Financing Activity since note is long term

Therefore, total cash inflows from operating activities are $553,000

Answer:

The present  Value of Annual Gain for  two years made from unwrapping the original swap agreement is  $20.00

Explanation:

From the given information;

The annual gain from swap agreements = $61.50 - $51.25

The annual gain from swap agreements =  $10.25

Annual rate for the first year = 1% = 0.01

Annual rate for the second year = 2% = 0.02

However the present gain for the first year will be;

[tex]= \dfrac{Annual \ Gain}{(1+r_1)^1}[/tex]

[tex]= \dfrac{10.25}{(1+0.01)^1}[/tex]

= 10.14851485

The present gain for the second year will be;

[tex]= \dfrac{Annual \ Gain}{(1+r_2)^2}[/tex]

[tex]= \dfrac{10.25}{(1+0.02)^2}[/tex]

= 9.851980008

The present Value of Annual Gain for  two years is:

[tex]= \dfrac{Annual \ Gain}{(1+r_1)^1} + \dfrac{Annual \ Gain}{(1+r_2)^2}[/tex]

=  10.14851485  + 9.851980008

= 20.00049486

≅ $ 20.00

The present  Value of Annual Gain for  two years is $20.00

Answer:

A. loss of current sales due to a new project being implemented.

Explanation:

In business, erosion takes place when a new product or project competes with another product or project from the came company. This "internal" competition reduces the revenues and benefits from existing products or projects. It is basically a form of business cannibalization, where the left arm takes away from the right arm. E.g. newer smartphone models decrease the sales revenue from existing (older) models.

Answer:

The slope for the relationship between the price and the quantity of ice cream sold would be of -1/15

Explanation:

In order to calculate the slope for the relationship between the price and the quantity of ice cream sold we would have to calculate the following formula:

Slope= change in yaxis( vertical)/change in xaxis(horizontal)

Slope= change in price/change in quantity demand

Slope=P2-P1/Q2-Q1

Slope=3-4/35-20

Slope=-1/15

The slope for the relationship between the price and the quantity of ice cream sold would be of -1/15

Answer:

The manufacturing cycle efficiency is 0.219

Explanation:

In order to calculate the manufacturing cycle efficiency we would have to calculate the following formula:

manufacturing cycle efficiency=value added time/throughput time

value added time= 40 min

throughput time=Process time+Inspection time+movie time+Queue time

throughput time=40+5+15+2+120

throughput time=182 min

Therefore, manufacturing cycle efficiency=40/182

manufacturing cycle efficiency=0.219

The manufacturing cycle efficiency is 0.219

Answer:

This is a Unilateral contract

Explanation:

Mary has made a promise to pay the person who performs the act of returning Sparky therefore this is an example of a unilateral contract.

A unilateral contract is a type of contract agreement where an offeror such as Mary makes a promise to pay after the performance of a specified act, which is to return her dog Sparky