Answer:
Evidence
Explanation:
Evidence is proof that something is true
One element found in all living and dead organisms is ______.
Answer:
hydrozen............
......
i think!b..
what cell structure is largely responsible for controlling the entry and exit of substances into or out of the cell?
Answer:
plasma membrane
Explanation:
The plasma membrane is also known as the cell membrane. It is the boundary between the internal components of a cell and its external surroundings. It controls the entry and exit of substances into or out of the cell and thus, facilitates the exchange of substances between the cells and their external environment.
Why would a drop in blood pH have an undesirable effect on the proximal histidine's function?a. A drop in pH would make deprotonation more likely, and a deprotonated proximal histidine would be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme.b. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to donate its electron density to the iron atom.c. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme due to its positive charge.
Answer:
c. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme due to its positive charge.
Explanation:
Protonation refers to the addition of proton or H+ to the atom or molecule. If the pH of blood drop means acidic so it causes adverse effect on the function of proximal histidine because the proximal histidine gain proton and become cation. Due to this proton, proximal histidine is unable to make hydrogen bond between heme and oxygen and the blood is unable to transport more oxygen with hemoglobin from the lungs.
which fungi group is known as the zygote fungi and produces spores in zygos[orangia?
Answer:
zygomcota
Explanation:
discovered in Winter 1881
Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae, commonly called gonococcus (GC). This organism developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline in the 1980s, after which fluoroquinolones were the recommended drugs for treating GC. Subsequent resistance to the fluoroquinolones has led to the current recommended treatment of injected ceftriaxone in combination with oral azithromycin. Although this approach continues to be effective, recent data from the CDC indicates that resistance to azithromycin is emerging.Fluoroquinolones act by inhibiting DNA gyrase, an enzyme involved in DNA replication. Resistance to this antibiotic is most commonly by a. due to a mutation in the gene that encodes RNA polymerase, an example of adaptive resistance. b. a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of acquired resistance increased efflux of the drug from the target cell, an example of innate resistance. c. a change in the DNA gyrase target, an example of innate resistance. d. enzymatic modification of the ribosomal target, an example of innate resistance.
Answer:
The correct answer is option b, that is, a modification in the target of DNA gyrase, is an illustration of acquired resistance.
Explanation:
The activity of DNA gyrase gets inhibit by fluoroquinolones. The enzyme that combines with the DNA and prevents its supercoiling at the time of replication is termed as DNA gyrase. It is a heterotetramer, which is formed of two subunits of GyrA and two subunits of GyrB. Due to the mutation in gene gyrA, the development of resistance takes place in N. gonorrhea against fluoroquinolones.
Post mutation, gyrA exhibits lesser binding capacity with the fluoroquinolones, and thus, the development of resistance takes place within the bacteria against the fluoroquinolones. The phenomenon of the development of resistance taking place in any microbe against the specific antimicrobial agent for whom it was vulnerable before is termed as acquired resistance, thus, the given case is an illustration of acquired resistance.
Why does the growth of dodder eventually lead to the death of a host plant?
Answer:
it deprives the plant of nutrients
Explanation:
1. What were the first living things on Earth?
Answer:
prokaryotes
Explanation:
How digestive enzyme affected when people having high fever? Explain.
Higher the body temperature, it would disrupt the shape of the active site of the enzyme , which will reduce its activity, or prevent it from working. The enzyme will have been denatured also the protein which can also lead to death.
Answer:
When a person has high fever, it's body temperature increases.
When the temperature is too high, enzyme molecules vibrate vigorously causing it to lost it's shapes and active sites.
Then, started to denatured and eventually, the enzyme died and no longer able to function.
reaaallly need help!!
There are two different alleles for flower color, P and p. The image shows a purple sweet pea that is labeled with its two alleles for petal color. A purple sweet pea is labeled Upper P Upper P. Which is the genotype of the sweet pea?
Answer:
There is no diagram but the question can be answered using the description. The options to this question are:
Which is the genotype of the sweet pea?
A.heterozygous dominant
B.heterozygous recessive
C.homozygous dominant
D.homozygous recessive
The answer is C (homozygous dominant)
Explanation:
According to the question, a flower colour gene in a pea plant possesses two different alleles, P and p. Lettercase is used to illustrate that allele P (upper case) is dominant over allele p (lowercase) i.e P will be expressed over p in the flower colour gene.
According to the question, the pea plant exhibits a purple flower colour and is labelled as PP. This genotype is said to be homozygous because the same alleles (P) make up the plant's genotype. Since the allele P coding for purple coloration is dominant, the purple sweet pea is said to be HOMOZYGOUS dominant i.e. possess the same dominant alleles for that gene.
Answer:
[C] H D
(Brainly Marked It As An Inappropriate Word)
Explanation:
See Below
The graph below compares the rates of reaction of a burning candle and an exploding firework.
Comparing Chemical Reactions
A graph has time on the horizontal axis and concentration of reactants on the vertical axis. For an exploding firework, the concentration starts high, increases slightly and then decreases rapidly. For a burning candle the concentration starts high, increases more than the firework, and then decreases rapidly. The concentration for the burning candle is higher than the firework at all timepoints.
What can you conclude from the graph?
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs less rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs less rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
Answer:
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
Explanation:
The speed of a chemical reaction and the amount of energy required for this reaction is directly linked to the concentration of reagents present in the system. With that, we can say that the higher the concentration of reagents, the faster the chemical reaction will be due to the greater probability of collision between its molecules.
Although the reaction that causes a candle to burn has more reactants than the reaction that causes the fireworks to explode, the latter requires less energy to start. This makes the molecules of the reagents stir faster and collide more efficiently, making the reaction happen much faster.
In summary, the reaction that causes a firework to explode requires less energy to start and occurs more quickly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The reaction that causes a firework to explode requires more energy to start, and occurs more rapidly than the reaction that causes a candle to burn.
The rate of reaction refers to the ease with which reactants are converted to products. The higher the rate of reaction, the faster reactants are converted into products.
The activation energy is the energy required for reactants to be converted into products. It is an energy barrier that separates reactants and products.
From the description of the graphs, we are told that the reaction that causes the explosion of firework starts at high concentration, initially increases slightly then decreases rapidly. The fact that it initially increased slightly before decreasing rapidly implies that the high energy required for the reaction to start is high.
On the other hand, the reaction for the candle to burn starts at high concentration, increases more than the firework, and then decreases rapidly because the reaction requires a lesser energy to commence than the reaction for the burning of candle.
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Which is a negative impact on the earth caused by human population growth?
Answer:
Humans impact the physical environment in many ways: overpopulation, pollution, burning fossil fuels, and deforestation. Changes like these have triggered climate change, soil erosion, poor air quality, and undrinkable water.
Explanation:
Hope this helped.
Answer:
Destruction of Natural Habitats
Explanation:
These five concepts provide a modem interpretation of Mendelian postulates.
- Inheritance is governed by information stored in discrete factors called genes.
- Genes are transmitted from generation to generation on vehicles called chromosomes.
- Chromosomes, which exist in pairs in diploid organisms, provide the basis of biparental inheritance.
- During gamete formation, chromosomes are distributed according to postulates first described by Gregor Mendel, based on his nineteenth-century research with the garden pea.
- Mendelian postulates prescribe that homologous chromosomes segregate from one another and assort independently with other segregating homologous during gamete formation.
Based on these concepts, choose statements that correlate Mendel's four postulates with what is now known about genes, alleles, and homologous chromosomes.
Select the five correct statements.
a. Some gene pairs on nonhomologous chromosomes can aggregate after separation and mitosis or meiosis would stop.
b. Some genes have dominant and recessive alleles.
c. Unit factors occur in pairs.
d. Some possible gametic combinations are formed with higher probability if dominant alleles take part in meiosis.
e. During mitosis and meiosis, when chromosomes are visible in their characteristic shapes. members of a homologous pair have different sizes and exhibit opposite centromere locations.
f. Different gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes will separate independently from each other during meiosis.
g. Alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation at anaphase
h. Dominant alleles can become codominant alleles during mitosis.
e. One gene pair separates independently from other gene pairs.
Answer:
b. Some genes have dominant and recessive alleles.
C. Unit factors occur in pairs.
e. During mitosis and meiosis, when chromosomes are visible in their characteristic shapes. members of a homologous pair have different sizes and exhibit opposite centromere locations
f. Different gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes will separate independently from each other during meiosis.
g. Alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation at anaphase
Explanation:
Mendel's postulates of inheritance are: (1) Principles of Paired Factors (2) Principle of Dominance(3) Law of Segregation or Law of Purity of Gametes (Mendel’s First Law of Inheritance) and (4) Law of Independent Assortment (Mendel’s Second Law of Inheritance).
Each of these laws provide information on how inheritance of traits by offspring from parents occur.
Principle of paired factors:
A character is represented in an organism (diploid) by at least two factors. The two factors lie on the two homologous chromosomes at the same locus or position.
Principle of Dominance:
Dominant characters are those which always appear in every generatio whereas recessive characters may not appear in some generations e.g. F1 generation.
Law of segregation:
During the formation of gametes (egg or pollen), the paired genes separate or segregate randomly so that each gamete receives one or the other with equal likelihood
Law of Independent assortment:
During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors (genes) assort independently of each other.
From the above consideration,
Option A is wrong because it doesn't correlate with the law of Independent assortment
Option B is correct based on the second postulate
Option C is correct based on the first postulate
Option D is wrong based on the law of segregation which assigns equal likely to gene separation
Option E is correct based on recent studies of genes
Option F is correct based on the law of Independent assortment
Option G is correct based on recent studies on genes
Option H is wrong because dominant genes remain dominant. Co-dominance occurs when allelic pairs are neither dominant nor recessive
Option 'e' is wrong because independent assortment occurs between pairs of genes with contrasting character not a gene pair having the same character where only segregation occurs.
Which is a factor that determines whether a molecule can cross a cell membrane?
Answer:
if a molecule is too large it cannot pass. also it depends on the concentration of a specific substance inside the cell. similarly, if a molecule is polar it cannot penetrate the phospholipid bilayer.
there are proteins that work as channels and pumps that allow these molecules to pass
Explanation:
The polarity of the molecule determines whether a molecule can cross a cell membrane. The correct option is D.
What is polarity?The asymmetric establishment of several cellular components, such as the plasma membrane, cytoskeleton, or organelles, is alluded to as cell polarity.
The polarity of the molecule determines whether a molecule can cross a cell membrane as the cell membrane is composed of phospholipids which are polar in nature.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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The missing options of the question are:
Speed.Texture.Mass.Polarity.Why are tanning beds not safe
Answer:
skin damages.
Explanation:
it hads UVA and UBV rays which cost the skin to be damaged by the rays. it can also make you have skin cancer.
Which of the following statements is true regarding anabolism?
Choose 1 answer:
А) Energy is released during anabolic reactions.
B) In anabolism, larger molecules are made from smaller molecules.
C) Anabolism is the sum of all the chemical reactions in a cell.
D) Anabolism uses the process of hydrolysis to join molecules together.
Answer:
B) In anabolism, larger molecules are made from smaller molecules.
Explanation:
Anabolism is a metabolic process that uses up energy that is produced to build up complex and larger molecules from smaller ones. It is part of the chemical process that takes place in a cell.
For example, photosynthesis is an anabolic process, in which the cell forms larger molecules such as glucose from smaller molecules like water and carbon dioxide, with the use of solar energy.
Option B is true regarding anabolism.
Why are detritivores, decomposers and omnivores not assigned trophic levels
Answer:
The reason is because detritivores and decomposers and omnivores are multilevel food chain consumers in an ecosystem making them not qualified to be assigned to a given trophic level
Explanation:
An organism is placed in a trophic level based the level it is from where the food chain starts with the start of the food chain having a level of 1 for the food producers such including plants and algae
Level 2 organisms are called primary consumers and consists of organism that eat only plants known as herbivores such as cattle
Level 3 organisms are called secondary consumers and consists of animal eating organism known as carnivores such as foxes etc.
Level 4 organisms are called tertiary consumers
Level 5 organisms are the a p e x p r e d a t o r s
Detritivores and decomposers such as bacteria, earthworm flies fungi consume the wastes produced at all trophic levels, therefore they cannot be assigned to a particular trophic level
Similarly, omnivores consumes both plants at level 2 and animals at level 3 making it ambiguous to assign them to one particular trophic level.
Assume that plant weight is determined by a pair of alleles at each of two independently assorting loci (A and a, B and b) that are additive in their effects. Further assume that each allele represented by an uppercase letter contributes 4 g to weight and that each allele represented by a lowercase letter contributes 1 g to weight. If a plant with genotype AA BB is crossed with a plant with genotype aa bb, what weights are expected in the F_a progeny?
A. 1 g
B. 4 g
C. 8 g
D. 10 g
Answer: choice D. 10g
Explanation:
The cross is AABB x aabb so the F1 progeny would have AaBb genotype.
The question states that dominant alleles(uppercase letters) contribute 4g and recessive ones contribute 1g to the weight of the plant.
so for AaBb we would have 4+1+4+1=10g.
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
Choose the correct definition and two examples of radiative energy.
radiative energy is energy in light. Sunlight carries this form of energy, as do other forms of light including X-rays and radio waves.
2.Black fur(B) in guinea pigs is dominant over white fur(b). Find theprobability of an offspring with the same phenotype as its parents in across between a homozygous black and a heterozygous black guineapig
.A. 0%,
25%B.25%,
25%C.50%,50%
D.75%, 25%
E.100%, 0%
Answer:
Option d: black 75%, white 25%
Explanation:
The cross is between a homozygous black and a heterozygous black guinea pig
Parents gen. BB x Bb
F1 generation BB Bb Bb bb
The probability of an offspring with the same phenotype as its parents is
Genotype: BB - 25% and Bb - 50%, bb-25%
Phenotype: black 75%, white 25%
flowers contain structures that are responsible for which process?
a- Germination ,
b-Reproduction ,
c-Respiration ,
d-transpiration
Answer: B: Reproduction
Explanation: Generally, flowers are the reproductive organs of plant. All its structures are geared towards the reproduction process
Does specific heat also mean the amount of energy needed for cooling, or is it only energy for heating?
Answer:
yes it does
here is a more clearer explanation
Explanation:
The specific heat capacity of water is 4,200 Joules per kilogram per degree Celsius (J/kg°C). This means that it takes 4,200 J to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C.
Some other examples of specific heat capacities are:
Material Specific heat capacity (J/kg/°C)
Brick 840
Copper 385
Lead 129
Lead will warm up and cool down fastest because it doesn’t take much energy to change its temperature. Brick will take much longer to heat up and cool down. This is why bricks are sometimes used in storage heaters as they stay warm for a long time. Most heaters are filled with oil (1,800 J/kg°C) or water (4,200 J/kg°C) as these emit a lot of energy as they cool down and, therefore, stay warm for a long time.
The specific heat capacity of a material is the energy required to raise one kilogram (kg) of the material by one degree Celsius (°C).
true or false if you click on the name of a structure you identified incorrectly or correctly you will be taken to the module in APR where you can review this structure
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
When you are given a given structure and you ick on it to know if its correct or wrong you will be taken to a module on APR where u can review this structure and see clearly if it's right or wrong. That is how the website as be programmed. Once you click on it, u are automatically directed to APR to review and clarify your answers.
carbohydrates are used for what
Carbohydrates are used for short term energy. It also stores energy.
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Function of carbohydrates
Carbohydrates provide fuel for the central nervous system and energy for working muscles. They also prevent protein from being used as an energy source and enable fat metabolism, according to Iowa State University. Also, "carbohydrates are important for brain function," Smathers said.
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What happens during telophase of the cell cycle? A. Chromosomes are pulled apart. B. Chromosomes line up. C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears. D. Chromosomes condense
Answer:
C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears.
Explanation:
Answer: C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears.
Explanation:
Telophase is the final stage of the cell cycle which involves the separation of daughter cells.
Hope it helps .
Which organ system
provides oxygen so that
exercising muscle fibers
can efficiently produce
ATP?
Answer:
lungs
Explanation:
idk if I'm correct I'm just guessing
in what way do these trees suggest that some of these species of blood flukes have switched hots?
Answer:
Prevention. The basic means of preventing Schistosoma infection is avoiding contact with fresh water infested with Schistosome parasites. Swimming, wading, or any other aquatic activities in these bodies of water exposes the skin to possible penetration by the cercariae.Explanation:
Consider how the following behaviors, characteristics, or facts affect the risk for CVD. Determine whether each increases, decreases, or has no effect on the risk for CVD.
a. Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels
b. having reduced HDL cholesterol levels
c. being a premenopausal woman
d. being exposed to secondhand smoke
e. participating in exercise
f. having elevated HDL cholesterol levels.
Answer:
Explanation:
Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels - this increases the risk for CVD as it also brings about CHD
Having reduced HDL cholesterol levels- this increases the risk of CVD as a low HDL increases omes risk of CVD at lower rates
Being a premenopausal woman - I dont think this has any effect on the risk for CVD
Being exposed to secondhand smoke -
This also increases the risk of stroke associated with CVD
- participating in exercise: this decreases the risk of CVD
Having elevated HDL cholesterol levels - this decreases ones risk of CVD as it helps to clear cholesterol from arteries delivering them back to the lover and reducing the risk for CVD
The color of the mustard plant in Lab 4 (Natural Selection) was determined by a single gene with two alleles (Y or y). The Y allele was dominant to y allele, and Y gave us a green plant, and yy a yellow-green plant. You measure the following genotype frequencies: YY = 0.5; Yy = 0.25; yy = 0.25. You calculate the following Hardy-Weinberg Frequencies: YY = 0.30; Yy = 0.56; yy = 0.14 This population looks like it has evolved. We can tell this because : Group of answer choices
Answer and Explanation:
It occurs evolution whenever the allelic frequencies in the genic pool change. If the population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, it is because one, some, or several of the model's assumptions are not met. If we want to know if a population is evolving, we must observe the frequencies of the population, and if they change over time. If there is a change, it might also be reflected in the phenotypic frequencies.
In the exposed example there was an evident change in the population genetic frequencies.
1) Genotype frequencies: YY = 0.5; Yy = 0.25; yy = 0.25
Genic or Alleleic frequency:
Frequency of y= f(q)= √0.25 =0.5Frequency of Y= f(p)= 1- 0.5 =0.52) Hardy-Weinberg Frequencies: YY = 0.30; Yy = 0.56; yy = 0.14
Genic or Alleleic frequency:
Frequency of y= f(p)= √0.14 =0.374
Frequency of Y= f(p)= 1- 0.5 =0.626
The allelic frequencies and hence the genotypic frequencies changes, so we can assume that there was evolution.
Sleve tubes are found in which vascular tissue?
OA. phloem
OB. xylem
Oc.
tracheids
Answer:
A. phloem
Explanation: