Prove that for any complex polynomial ^=−1,
the sum of the roots is zero. (Please state any theorem used).

Answer:

The answer is 6

Step-by-step explanation:

p(x) = x  + 3

p(-x) = -x + 3

=> p(x) + p(-x) = x + 3 + (-x) + 3 = 6

Hope this helps!

:)

Answer:

What is 20 percent (calculated percentage %) of number 40? Answer: 8.

Step-by-step explanation:

happy to help ya:)

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

y is greater than or equal to 14.

Answer:

Option C

y _> 14

Step-by-step explanation:

here, y is greater than or equal to 14

Answer:

a₆ = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a common ratio r between consecutive terms in the sequence, that is

r = [tex]\frac{216}{-1296}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-1296}{7776}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{7776}{-46656}[/tex] = - [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

This indicates the sequence is geometric.

To obtain any term in the sequence, multiply the previous term by r, thus

a₅ = 216 × - [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] = - 36

a₆ = - 36 × - [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] = 6

Answer:

It's 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Got it right!

1 –46,656

2 7,776

3 –1,296

4 216

5 36

6 6

divided by 6 every time

Answer:

hope this helps! pls mark brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

a = quadrant 1

b = quadrant 1

c = quadrant 3

d = quadrant 2

e = quadrant 4

f = quadrant 3

g = quadrant 2

h = quadrant 4

Answer:

Expected Payoff ⇒ $ 1.50 ; Type in 1.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering that 1 out of the 100 tickets will have a probability of winning a 150 dollar prize, take a proportionality into account;

[tex]100 - Number of Tickets,\\1 - Number of Tickets You Can Enter,\\\\1 / 100 - Probability of Winning,\\$ 150 - Money Won,\\\\Proportionality - 1 / 100 = x / 150, where x - " Expected Payoff "\\\\1 / 100 = x / 150,\\100 * x = 150,\\\\Conclusion ; x = 1.5 dollars[/tex]

Thus, Solution ; Expected Payoff ⇒ $ 1.50

Answer:

[tex] \boxed{x = p(m - n)} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] = > m = n + \frac{x}{p} \\ \\ = > m = (n \times \frac{p}{p} ) + \frac{x}{p} \\ \\ = > m = \frac{pn}{p} + \frac{x}{p} \\ \\ = > m = \frac{pn + x}{p} \\ \\ = > mp = pn + x \\ \\ = > x + pn = pm \\ \\ = > x = pm - pn \\ \\ = > x = p(m - n)[/tex]

Answer:

metre squared (m²)

Step-by-step explanation:

metre×metre=metre squared (m²)

Answer:

2 x 10^-2

Step-by-step explanation:

0.02 equals to 2/100

therefore 0.02= 2/102 (remember this is negative)

= 2x10^-2 (therefore -2)

The solution to the number 0.02 in scientific notation is 2 * 10⁻²

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

Number = 0.02

Multiply the number by 1

So, we have

Number = 0.02 * 1

Express 1 as 100/100

So, we have the following representation

Number = 0.02 * 100/100

Next, we have

Number = 2 * 1/100

Express 1/100 as 10⁻²

So, we have

Number = 2 * 10⁻²

Hence, the solution is 2 * 10⁻²

Read more about scientific notation at

brainly.com/question/1767229

#SPJ6

Answer:

35°

Step-by-step explanation:

ABC is a equilateral triangle and that means all of its

interior angles have the same measure and = 60°

since angle ACB is 60° the complementary of it would be 120° this is alsıo the measure of angle ACD

The measure of angle CAD is given as 25°

The measure of sum of interior angles in a triangle is equal to 180°

So the missing angle ADC is 35°

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation:

(g*h)(x) is equal to g(x) times h(x). So, simply multiply them to get [tex]6x^2[/tex]

Answer:

2.61

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the amount of space between the two points, subtract -2.61 from 0.

0 - (-2.61)       Distribute the negative

0 + 2.61          Add

2.61

[tex]answer = 1751\\ selling \: price = 1700 \\ tax \: percent = 3 \: percent \\ tax \: amount = tax \: percent \: of \: \: sp \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 3 \: percent \: of \: 1700 \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 51 \\ \\ \: final \: cost = 1700 + 51 \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 1751 \\ hope \: it \: helps \\ good \: luck \: on \: your \: assignment[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Selling price

[tex]1700[/tex]

Tax percent

[tex]3\%[/tex]

Tax amount

[tex]1700 \times \frac{3}{100} \\ = 51 [/tex]

Final cost

[tex]1700 + 51 \\ = 1751[/tex]

hope this helps

brainliest appreciated

good luck! have a nice day!

Answer:

a) 3

b) -4

c) -1/3

d) -2

e) -4/3

Step-by-step explanation:

a) 6w=2  ,   w=6/2    , ie. w= 3

b) 6+w=2   ,w=2-6   , ie. w= -4

c) 6w+2= 0,  6w=  0-2 , 6w= -2 , w= -2/6, ie. w= -1/3

d) 6w+2= -10, 6w= -10-2,  6w= -12, w= -12/6 , ie. w= -2

e) 6w+2= 12w+10, 6w-12w = 10-2 ( here we interchanged the digits to get the variables or you can say the terms having variables in this case 'w' to the same side. hereby changing the sign from '+' to '-')

so

6w-12w = 10-2 ,-6w=8, w= -8/6, ie. w= -4/3

You can check your answers by substituting with the answers in place of the variable and check if the equation is solved.

Tell me if this was helpful

Answer:

" Expected Payoff " = $ 4.30

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the steps below;

[tex]Probability of Winning the 150 Dollar Prize - 1 / 100,\\Probability * Money Won = " Expected Payoff " For The 150 Dollar Prize,\\\\1 / 100 * 150,\\" Expected Payoff " - 1.5 Dollars,\\\\Probability of Winning the 130 Dollar Prize - 1 / 100,\\\\1 / 100 * 130,\\" Expected Payoff " - 1.3 Dollars,\\\\Probability of Winning the 110 Dollar Prize - 1 / 100,\\\\1 / 100 * 110,\\" Expected Payoff " - 1.1 Dollars,\\\\Probability of Winning the 40 Dollar Prize - 1 / 100,\\\\[/tex]

[tex]1 / 100 * 40,\\" Expected Payoff " - 0.4 Dollars,\\\\Conclusion ; " Expected Payoff " = 1.5 + 1.3 + 1.1 + 0.4 = 4.30 Dollars[/tex]

Solution ; " Expected Payoff " = $ 4.30

Make a table as shown in the diagram below. X represents the winnings, P(X) is the probability of getting such winnings. The third column X*P(X) represents the product of the first two columns. After you figure out every value in the third column, you add everything up to get the final answer.

Answer:

r = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for volume of a cone is [tex]\pi r^2*\frac{h}{3}[/tex]

h = 6

V = 50π

[tex]2\pi r^2=50\pi[/tex]

r = 5

Answer:

210

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 7 * 6 * 5 ways to finish. This is because we have 3 slots:

For 1st place, there are 7 people that could take that place, so we have 7

For 2nd place, there are 6 people, because one person already took 1st, so they cant be second as well.

For 3rd place, there are 5 people, because 2 people already took first and second place, and neither of them can be third then.

So we have:

7*6*5 = 210

Answer:

210 ways

Step-by-step explanation:

For 1 st place there are 7 different runners

Now there are only 6 options

For 2nd place there are 6 different runners

Now there are only 5 options

For 3rd place there are 5 different runners

7*6*5

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

4/2 =2

12/6 =2

20/10 =2

Answer:

C is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

6x^7+12x^6+3x^5

Answer:

Answer:

C is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

6x^7+12x^6+3x^5

Answer:

One solution

Step-by-step explanation:

They have isolated y for you in both equations so you can plug either one into the other.

y = 3x - 1

2x + 7 = 3x - 1

isolate the x

7 = x - 1

x = 8

Go back to the original and plug 8 into x to get y.

y = 2 (8) + 7

y = 16 + 7

y = 23

This means at (8, 23) y = 2x+7 is equal to y = 3x-1. In other words they share a point at (8, 23). This is the only solution because for any other x and y they'd not be equal.

Answer:

The difference is 11 units

Step-by-step explanation:

When we talk of the abscissa, we are referring to the x-axis.

So what this question is asking us is the difference between the values of the x-axis

At point A, the value is 4 while at point B, the value here is -7

So the difference between this two would be 4-(-7) = 4 + 7 = 11 units

Answer:

2.5 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question we can use the exponencial function:

P = Po * (1 + r)^t

Where P is the final value, Po is the inicial value, r is the rate and t is the time.

In this case, we have Po = 8, P = 7 and r = -5% = -0.05. So, we can solve for t:

7 = 8 * (0.95)^t

0.95^t = 0.875

log(0.95^t) = log(0.875)

t * log(0.95) = -0.1335

t * (-0.0513) = -0.1335

t = -0.1335 / (-0.0513) = 2.6023 hours

Rounding to the nearest half-hour, we have t = 2.5 hours

Answer:

2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I had this question and got it right

Answer:

you cant answer it you have no choice to pick cuz you didnt put dem

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C

X=6

Step-by-step explanation:

7+5x-15=22

5x-8=22

5x=22+8

5x=30

X=30/5

X=6

Answer:

After 5 minutes, the submarine is at -40 × 5 = -200 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

In 1 minute, the submarine is 40 feet below sea level. This situation can be represented with -40 feet. Notice that we use a negative sign since the submarine is descending.

Answer:

It's at 200 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

You multiply 40 and 5 because the submarine goes 40 ft per minute and you have to find out the level after 5 minutes.

Therefore 40•5=200 ft

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Linear pairs are adjacent angles that are supplementary. Their measures add to 180 deg. Vertical angles are congruent. Let's say two lines intersect, and you know the measure of one of the 4 angles that were formed.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

SAS

Step-by-step explanation:

DB and BD are equal

The angles near D are equal

AD and DC are equal

Side Angle Side

Answer:

[tex]50.27[/tex] [tex]cm[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\pi r^2h \times 1/3[/tex]

[tex]\pi \times 2^2 \times 12 \times 1/3[/tex]

[tex]\pi \times 4 \times 12 \times 1/3[/tex]

[tex]16\pi[/tex]

[tex]\approx 50.265482[/tex]

Answer:

16π cm^3  or 50.27 cm^3 to the nearest hundredth.

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 1/3 π r^2 h

= 1/3 π 2^2 12

= 16π cm^3.

Answer:

2 + an

Step-by-step explanation:

1 + 1 + na

2 + am

Answer:

B: Jupiter

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps