The exchange rate is 156 pesos for 1 US dollar. You have $20.00 US. How many pesos do you have?
A. $128.00
B. $0.13
C. $3,120.00
D. $312.00

Answer:

0.2307 > 0.05, which means that we accept the null hypothesis, that is, that the population proportion in favor of candidate A is close to 0.79, that is, it is not significantly more than 0.79.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are interested in determining whether the proportion of the population in favor of Candidate A is significantly more than 79%.

This means that the null hypothesis is:

[tex]H_{0}: p = 0.79[/tex]

And the alternate hypothesis is:

[tex]H_{a}: p > 0.79[/tex]

We know that the p-value is 0.2307. At the 0.05 level of significance, it can be concluded that the proportion of the population in favor of candidate A is?

0.2307 > 0.05, which means that we accept the null hypothesis, that is, that the population proportion in favor of candidate A is close to 0.79, that is, it is not significantly more than 0.79.

Answer:

3 jars of the chemical should be ordered

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Ol = 10 days

d = 16 ml

z = 1.65 at 95% service level

σ = 3.5 ml

Check of stock reviewed that 9 of 25-milliliter (ml) jars are on hand

so inventory in position = 9 × 25 = 225 ml        

now,

since this is a fixed-order-internal system;

first we determine our Target inventory

Target inventory = 16 × ( 10 + 6) + 1.65√( 10 + 6 ) × 3.5

Target inventory = 265 + 23.1  

Target inventory = 288.1

so  

Amount to order = Target inventory - inventory in position

Amount to order = 288.1 - 225  = 63.1 ml

∴ number of jars to order will be;

⇒ 63.1  ml/ 25 ml = 2.5  { approximately 3 jars }

Therefore, 3 jars of the chemical should be ordered

Answer:

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The probability of a property being sold is independent of any other property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

12 properties

This means that [tex]n = 12[/tex]

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that [tex]p = 0.5[/tex]

Compute the probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

This is:

[tex]P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0002[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0029[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0161[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{12,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{9} = 0.0537[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{8} = 0.1208[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 5) = C_{12,5}.(0.5)^{5}.(0.5)^{7} = 0.1934[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = C_{12,6}.(0.5)^{6}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.2256[/tex]

[tex]P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) = 0.0002 + 0.0029 + 0.0161 + 0.0537 + 0.1208 + 0.1934 + 0.2256 = 0.6127[/tex]

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Answer:

I would say about B. 31 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

if you cut the shape into a triangle and a parallelogram, then you can easily guess that the other side of the square is about 4, and 4 x 4 is 16.. then you will multiply 8 by 4 and get 32 and then divide that by 2 and get 16 again, when you add both 16's together, you get 32, but 31 is closest

Answer:

The missing number would be 17

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: I think it’s 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

200

Step-by-step explanation:

First we need to find the decimal version of 40%

to do this we can move the decimal point 2 spaces to the left.

40% ---> 0.40

then we can multiply by 500

This is equal to 200

Answer: 200

Step-by-step explanation: 40%=.40

500•.4=200

Answer:

Since [tex]f(25\,ft) < 8\,ft[/tex], then we conclude that it will be a goal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the trajectory of the ball be represented by [tex]f(x) = -0.05\cdot (x-16)^{2}+11[/tex], where [tex]x[/tex] is the horizontal distance of the ball from origin, in feet, and [tex]f(x)[/tex] is the height of the ball above ground, in feet.

If Deshawn does not block Chris's shot, then we should check if shot will be a goal and this condition must be fulfilled:

[tex]f(25\,ft) < 8\,ft[/tex] (1)

If we know that [tex]x = 25\,ft[/tex], then the height of the ball at the start of the goal is:

[tex]f(x) = -0.05\cdot (x-16)^{2}+11[/tex] (2)

[tex]f(x) = 6.95\,ft[/tex]

Since [tex]f(25\,ft) < 8\,ft[/tex], then we conclude that it will be a goal.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

what was a similarty between the united states troops sent to the spanish- american war and troops sent to fight in world war 1

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20x^2+23x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

(4x+3)(5x+2)

(4x)(5x)+2(4x)+(5x)3+3(2)

20x^2+8x+15x+6

20x^2+23x+6

Hope that helps :)

Answer:

20x^2 + 23x + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

4x (5x + 2) + 3(5x + 2)

20x^2 + 8x + 15x + 6

20x^2 + 23x + 6

Answer:

x=20

Step-by-step explanation:

x-19=1

x=1+19

x=20

Answer:

x-19=1

or,x=1+19

or,x=20

Hence,the value of x is 20

Answer:

d = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

For:

(X1, Y1) = (2, 3)

(X2, Y2) = (2, 8)

Distance Equation Solution:

d=(2−2)2+(8−3)2−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√

d=(0)2+(5)2−−−−−−−−−√

d=0+25−−−−−√

d=2–√5

d=5

Answer:

Just click an x on the graph for each number in the chart.

1/4 would have 4 x's

2/4 would have 2 x's

3/4 would have 1 x

1 would have 2 x's

Answer:

r = 10.5 m

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

A bicycle wheel turns 15 times in covering a distance of 66 m.

We need to find the radius of the wheel.

The distance that a wheel travels in one rotation is simply the circumference of the circle.

[tex]2\pi r=66[/tex]

Where

r is the radius of the wheel

Put all the values,

[tex]r=\dfrac{66}{2\pi}\\\\r=\dfrac{66\times 7}{2\times 22}\\\\r=10.5\ m[/tex]

So, the radius of the wheel is equal to 10.5 m.  

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

w is the width of the rectangle, then the length would be 4w - 3.

A = lw

A = w(4w -3)

A =4w² - 3w

Hope this helped!!!

Answer:

When used as a diacritic mark, the term dot is usually reserved for the interpunct, or to the glyphs 'combining dot above' and 'combining dot below' which may be combined with some letters of the extended Latin alphabets in use in Central European languages and Vietnamese.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 1133.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1133.5

Step-by-step explanation:

area = 3.14 (19)square

3.14 (361)

1133.54 ( round nearest ten)

1133.5

Answer:

w² + 4w - 525 = 0

Width of rectangle = 21 feet

Length of rectangle = 25 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Area of rectangular floor = 525 ft²

Find:

Equation

Dimensions of the floor

Computation:

Assume;

Width of rectangle = w feet

So,

Length of rectangle = w + 4 feet

Area of rectangular floor = length x width

Area of rectangular floor = w(w + 4)

525 = w² + 4w

w² + 4w - 525 = 0

w² + (25 - 21)w - 525 = 0

w² + 25w - 21w - 525 = 0

w(w + 25) -21(w + 25)

(w + 25)(w - 21)

So,

w = -25 , w = 21

So,

Width of rectangle = 21 feet

Length of rectangle = w + 4 feet

Length of rectangle = 21 + 4 feet

Length of rectangle = 25 feet

Answer:

it is at least $300000 good luck

Answer:

the answer is 12

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

You take the points and input them into the equation. If they all equal the set then it is the equation. So for example a point on the graph is (2,30) so in this case x is 2 so you would do y= 15(2) which is 30. So that equation and point checks out. Repeat with the others

Answer:

its c

Step-by-step explanation:

:)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (a)  2021

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression can be simplified.

  [tex]\displaystyle\frac{a^4+b^4+2a^2b^2+a^3b+ab^3}{a^2+b^2}+ab=\frac{(a^2+b^2)^2+ab(a^2+b^2)}{a^2+b^2}+ab\\\\=a^2+b^2+ab+ab=(a+b)^2\\\\=(\sqrt{2021})^2=\boxed{2021}[/tex]

Answer:

days 7

weeks 4

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 7DAYS Iin a week

there are 4WEEKS in a month

Answer:

for the regular tickets they charged $8 for the pre sale the charged $6

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C. 4i

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C. 4i

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\sqrt{-16} = \sqrt{16} \sqrt{-1}[/tex] (because [tex]\sqrt{ab} =\sqrt{a} \sqrt{b}[/tex])

Since [tex]\sqrt{16}[/tex]=4, and [tex]\sqrt{-1}[/tex]=i, [tex]\sqrt{-16}[/tex]=4i

Answer:

for square its A=a2

for trapezoid its A=a+b/2h

for triangle A=hbb/2

for parallelogram A=bh

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It is already explained in simplest form

Step-by-step explanation:

It can be written as 0.925 in decimal form (rounded to 6 decimal places).

Answer:

A)P(ACC has a team in the championship game) = 0.5

B)P(SEC has a team in the championship game) = 0.4

C)P(both ACC & SEC having teams in the championship games) = 0.05

D)P(ACC or SEC) = 0.85

E)P(not ACC or SEC) = 0.15

Step-by-step explanation:

A) We are told that in the last 20 years, ACC has had a team in the championship game for 10 times.

Thus;

P(ACC has a team in the championship game) = 10/20 = 0.5

B) SEC has a team in the championship game 8 times in the last 20 years;

Thus;

P(SEC has a team in the championship game) = 8/20 = 0.4

C) since both ACC and SEC have had teams in the championship game for the past 20 years, then;

P(both ACC & SEC having teams in the championship games) = 1/20 = 0.05

D) Addition rule of probability is that;

P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A & B)

Applying it to this question, we have;

P(ACC or SEC) = P(ACC) + P(SEC) - P(ACC & SEC)

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

P(ACC or SEC) = 0.5 + 0.4 - 0.05

P(ACC or SEC) = 0.85

E) from complement rule, we can find the probability that the championship game will not a have team from one of these two conferences.

Thus;

P(ACC not SEC) = 1 - P(ACC or SEC)

P(ACC not SEC) = 1 - 0.85

P(ACC not SEC) = 0.15

Answer:

5:51 P.M.

Step-by-step explanation:

You first add 36 and 10 which you get 46 then add the 46 to the total so, 46 + 5 is 51 so she will get back at 5:51 P.M

Answer:

u first add 36 to 5:05=5:41 then add 10 more min and that is 51