Two people took turns tossing a fair die until one of them tossed a 6. PersonA tossed first, B second, A third, and so on. Given that person B threw the first 6, whatis the probability that B obtained the first 6 on her second toss (that is, on the fourth tossoverall)?

Answer:

53

Step-by-step explanation:

8•7 is 56

56 - 3 is 53

Answer:

53

Step-by-step explanation:

z = 7

8z is the same as saying 8×z

8×7-3 (do multiplication first)

56-3 = 53

Answer:

8+8=16

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets say you have 8 apples and your friend gives you 8 more apples. So, you count 9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16 which was 8 times.

Hope this helps.

Answer:

[tex]cos=\frac{4}{5}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Cosine is the adjacent side over the hypotenuse (You can remember sin, cos, and tan by using sohcahtoa or sin = opposite/hypotenuse, cos = adjacent/hypotenuse, tan = opposite over adjacent). I think a picture would help, too.

I attached a picture of what I think the triangle would look like.

If the picture is right (we're assuming it is) and going with what we're given (the triangle was addressed as triangle XYZ, meaning that angle Y is in the middle and that's the one we'll use).

Looking at my picture then:

[tex]cos=\frac{64}{80} \\cos=\frac{8}{10} \\cos=\frac{4}{5}[/tex] .

Answer:

eight (8)

Step-by-step explanation:

-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,4

Expectation is linear, meaning

E(a X + b Y) = E(a X) + E(b Y)

= a E(X) + b E(Y)

If X = 1 and Y = 0, we see that the expectation of a constant, E(a), is equal to the constant, a.

Use this property to compute the expectations:

E(X + 10) = E(X) + E(10) = $110

E(5Y) = 5 E(Y) = $450

E(X + Y) = E(X) + E(Y) = $190

Variance has a similar property:

V(a X + b Y) = V(a X) + V(b Y) + Cov(X, Y)

= a^2 V(X) + b^2 V(Y) + Cov(X, Y)

where "Cov" denotes covariance, defined by

E[(X - E(X))(Y - E(Y))] = E(X Y) - E(X) E(Y)

Without knowing the expectation of X Y, we can't determine the covariance and thus variance of the expression a X + b Y.

However, if X and Y are independent, then E(X Y) = E(X) E(Y), which makes the covariance vanish, so that

V(a X + b Y) = a^2 V(X) + b^2 V(Y)

and this is the assumption we have to make to find the standard deviations (which is the square root of the variance).

Also, variance is defined as

V(X) = E[(X - E(X))^2] = E(X^2) - E(X)^2

and it follows from this that, if X is a constant, say a, then

V(a) = E(a^2) - E(a)^2 = a^2 - a^2 = 0

Use this property, and the assumption of independence, to compute the variances, and hence the standard deviations:

V(X + 10) = V(X)  ==>  SD(X + 10) = SD(X) = $90

V(5Y) = 5^2 V(Y) = 25 V(Y)  ==>  SD(5Y) = 5 SD(Y) = $40

V(X + Y) = V(X) + V(Y)  ==>  SD(X + Y) = √[SD(X)^2 + SD(Y)^2] = √8164 ≈ $90.35

Answer:

x^2 + y^2 = 25

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 5 cos t

            cos t = x/5

y = 5 sin t

           sin t = y/5

cos^2 t + sin^2 t = 1

(x/5)^2 + (y/5)^2  = 1

x^2/25 + y^2/25 = 1

(x^2 + y^2)/25 =1

x^2 + y^2 = 25

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

8-(3a+8)

8-(11a)

8-11a

a=11-8

a=3

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

8-(3a+8)=0

8-3a-8=0

-3a=0

a=0

Answer:

Option (C).

Step-by-step explanation:

In the graph attached,

An absolute function has been given.

To check a graph whether it's a relation or a function, vertical line test is a trusted tool.

In vertical line test a vertical line (parallel to y-axis) is drawn passing through the graph.

If the vertical line cuts the graph at only one point then the graph is said to be a function.

The given graph passes the vertical test.

Therefore, it's a function.

Option C. will be the answer.

Yes, this graph represents a function, because it passes the vertical line test. Option C is correct

A function is a statement, rule, or law that specifies the connection between two variables. Functions are common in mathematics and are required for the formulation of physical connections.

An absolute function is shown in the graph that is attached. The vertical line test is a reliable method for determining if a graph represents a relation or a function.

In the vertical line test, a vertical line that is parallel to the y-axis and cuts through the graph is created. The graph is considered to be a function if the vertical line only intersects it once.

The vertical test is passed by the shown graph. It serves a purpose as a result.

Hence option C is correct.

To learn more about the function, refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/5245372

#SPJ5

Answer:

The lines would intersect at: (6, -4)

Step-by-step explanation:

I graphed both lines.

Answer:

(4,-2)

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation for the graphed line is [tex]y=\frac{1}{2} x-4[/tex] as it has a slope of [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] and a y-intercept of -4.

Now that we have the two equations, we can set them equal to each other to find the x-value at which they intersect

[tex]\frac{1}{2} x-4=-x+2[/tex]

First, we can add 4 to each side

[tex]\frac{1}{2} x=-x+6[/tex]

Then we can add x to each side

[tex]\frac{3}{2} x=6[/tex]

Now we need to divide both side by [tex]\frac{3}{2}[/tex], which is the same thing as multiplying by [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

[tex]x=6*\frac{2}{3} \\\\x=\frac{12}{3} \\\\x=4[/tex]

Now that we have the x-value, we can plug it into one of the equations to see the y-value for where they intersect.

[tex]y=-x+2\\\\y=-(4)+2\\\\y=-2[/tex]

This means that the coordinates for the intersection of these two lines would be [tex](4,-2)[/tex]

Answer:

B) (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is B because the union of a set represents everything thing that is within the sets.

Answer:

979

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

115/198

Step-by-step explanation:

khan

Answer:

There are many. Two examples are

[tex]f(x) = x, \\f(x) = x^3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

There are many examples. The simplest is

1 -

[tex]f(x) = x[/tex]

It is trivial that

[tex]\text{if \,\,\,\,} f(x) = f(y) \,\,\,\,\,\text{then} \,\,\,\,\, x=y[/tex]

2 -

[tex]f(x) = x^3[/tex]

That function is injective as well.

[tex]\text{if \,\,\,\,} x^3 = y^3 \,\,\,\,\,\text{then} \,\,\,\,\, x=y[/tex]

An example of a function that is NOT injective is

[tex]f(x) = x^2[/tex]

Notice that

[tex]f(-2) = (-2)^2 = 2^2 = 4[/tex]

Answer:

112

Step-by-step explanation:

Difference between each 4,8,7,5,1

Add numbers next to each other in pairs = 12

So 12-1= 11 and

101+11=112

Answer:

c. line

Step-by-step explanation:

the intersection of two planes is called a line

Answer:

Hello dear,

two planes intersect and forms line

so yaa your answer is C)

Hope I helped you ;)

please thank me !!!

satsriakal ji

Answer:

157.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Use PEMDAS! In this rule, it is stated that we should always add/subtract before multiplying/dividing. Also, whatever you do on one side of an equation, you do to another. Therefore, in order to get rid of the -2/5, add 2/5 so we can get rid of it. We also (according to the rule), have to add it to the other side in order to balance out. So add the 2/5 to 39. Then the other side is now 39.4. Now we have to get x by itself. Divide both sides by 1/4 (or multiply by 4 on both sides) in order to get x=157.6

Answer:

It is worth $4 to insure the mailing.

Step-by-step explanation:

The random variable X can be defined as the money value.

The PDA costs, $414.

It is provided that there is a 3% chance it will be lost or damaged in the mail.

So, there is 97% chance it will not be lost or damaged in the mail.

The insurance costs $4.

If the PDA is lost or damaged in the mail when there is no insurance the money value would be of -$414.

And if the PDA is lost or damaged in the mail when there is an insurance the money value would be of $414 - $4 = $410.

Compute the expected value of money as follows:

[tex]\text{E (X)}=(0.97\times 410)+(0.03\times -414)[/tex]

          [tex]=397.7-12.42\\=385.28[/tex]

The expected value of money in case the PDA is lost or damaged in the mail or not is $385.28.

Thus, it is worth $4 to insure the mailing.

The volume of the solid (call it S) in Cartesian coordinates is

[tex]\displaystyle\iiint_S\mathrm dV=\int_{-1}^1\int_{-\sqrt{1-x^2}}^{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\int_{(x^2+y^2)^2-1}^{4-4(x^2+y^2)}\mathrm dz\,\mathrm dy\,\mathrm dx[/tex]

but I suspect converting to cylindrical coordinates would make the integral much more tractable.

Take

[tex]\begin{cases}x=r\cos\theta\\y=r\sin\theta\\z=z\end{cases}\implies\mathrm dV=r\,\mathrm dr\,\mathrm d\theta\,\mathrm dz[/tex]

Then

[tex]4-4(x^2+y^2)=4-4r^2=4(1-r^2)[/tex]

[tex](x^2+y^2)^2-1=(r^2)^2-1=r^4-1[/tex]

and the integral becomes

[tex]\displaystyle\iiint_S\mathrm dV=\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^1\int_{r^4-1}^{4(1-r^2)}r\,\mathrm dz\,\mathrm dr\,\mathrm d\theta[/tex]

[tex]=\displaystyle2\pi\int_0^1r(4(1-r^2)-(r^4-1))\,\mathrm dr[/tex]

[tex]=\displaystyle2\pi\int_0^1r(5-4r^2-r^4)\,\mathrm dr[/tex]

[tex]=\displaystyle2\pi\int_0^15r-4r^3-r^5\,\mathrm dr[/tex]

[tex]=2\pi\left(\dfrac52-1-\dfrac16\right)=\boxed{\dfrac{8\pi}3}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]t \approx 17.690\,min[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

This differential equation is a first order linear differential equation with separable variables, whose solution is found as follows:

[tex]\frac{dy}{dt} = - \frac{1}{53} \cdot (y - 17)[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dy}{y-17} = -\frac{1}{53} \, dt[/tex]

[tex]\int\limits^{y}_{y_{o}} {\frac{dy}{y-17} } = -\frac{1}{53} \int\limits^{t}_{0}\, dx[/tex]

[tex]\ln \left |\frac{y-17}{y_{o}-17} \right | = -\frac{1}{53} \cdot t[/tex]

[tex]\frac{y-17}{y_{o}-17} = e^{-\frac{1}{53}\cdot t }[/tex]

[tex]y = 17 + (y_{o} - 17) \cdot e^{-\frac{1}{53}\cdot t }[/tex]

The solution of the differential equation is:

[tex]y = 17 + 74\cdot e^{-\frac{1}{53}\cdot t }[/tex]

Where:

[tex]y[/tex] - Temperature, measured in °C.

[tex]t[/tex] - Time, measured in minutes.

The time when the cup of coffee has the temperature of 70 °C is:

[tex]70 = 17 + 74 \cdot e^{-\frac{1}{53}\cdot t }[/tex]

[tex]53 = 74 \cdot e^{-\frac{1}{53}\cdot t }[/tex]

[tex]\frac{53}{74} = e^{-\frac{1}{53}\cdot t }[/tex]

[tex]\ln \frac{53}{74} = -\frac{1}{53}\cdot t[/tex]

[tex]t = - 53\cdot \ln \frac{53}{74}[/tex]

[tex]t \approx 17.690\,min[/tex]

Answer:

a) 0.32 = 32% probability that your bid will be accepted

b) 0.72 = 72% probability that your bid will be accepted

c) An amount in excess of $15,400.

Step-by-step explanation:

An uniform probability is a case of probability in which each outcome is equally as likely.

For this situation, we have a lower limit of the distribution that we call a and an upper limit that we call b.

The probability that we find a value X lower than x is given by the following formula.

[tex]P(X \leq x) = \frac{x - a}{b-a}[/tex]

Assume that the competitor's bid x is a random variable that is uniformly distributed between $10,400 and $15,400.

This means that [tex]a = 10400, b = 15400[/tex]

a. Suppose you bid $12,000. What is the probability that your bid will be accepted (to 2 decimals)?

You will win if the competitor bids less than 12000. So

[tex]P(X \leq 12000) = \frac{12000 - 10400}{15400 - 10400} = 0.32[/tex]

0.32 = 32% probability that your bid will be accepted

b. Suppose you bid $14,000. What is the probability that your bid will be accepted?

You will win if the competitor bids less than 14000. So

[tex]P(X \leq 14000) = \frac{14000 - 10400}{15400 - 10400} = 0.72[/tex]

0.72 = 72% probability that your bid will be accepted

c. What amount should you bid to maximize the probability that you get the property (in dollars)?

His bid is uniformly distributed between $10,400 and $15,400.

So, to maximize the probability that you get the property, you should bid an amount in excess of $15,400.

Completed Question

1. OSHA is an agency responsible for workplace safety, read its rule and sketch a  diagram that shows the proper relationship between the ladder, wall and ground .

Rule: Non-self-supporting ladders, which must lean against a wall or other support, are to be positioned at such an angle  that the horizontal distance from the top support to the foot of the ladder is about the 1/4 working length of the ladder.

2. Calculate the angle that the ladder makes with the ground using a trigonometric ratio.

3. If a ladder is x feet long, how high up a wall can it safely reach?

4. Would a 51-foot ladder be long enough to climb a 50-foot wall?

Answer:

(a)See attachment

(b)75.52 degrees

(c)[tex]Height ,h=\dfrac{x\sqrt{15}}{4} $ feet[/tex]

(d) NO

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1

Let the length of the ladder =x

Since by the given rule, Horizontal Distance =[tex]\dfrac14$ of the length of the ladder[/tex]

Horizontal Distance = [tex]\dfrac14x[/tex]

In the sketch of the problem attached below,

Part 2

From Triangle ABC

[tex]\cos C=\dfrac{BC}{AC} \\\cos C=\dfrac{x/4}{x} \\\cos C=\dfrac{1}{4}\\ C=\arccos \dfrac{1}{4}\\C \approx 75.52^\circ[/tex]

The angle that the ladder makes with the ground is 75.52 degrees.

Part 3

If the ladder is x feet long

Using Pythagoras theorem in Triangle ABC below

[tex]x^2=(x/4)^2+h^2\\h^2=x^2-\dfrac{x^2}{16}\\ h^2=\dfrac{15x^2}{16}\\h=\sqrt{\dfrac{15x^2}{16}} \\h=\dfrac{x\sqrt{15}}{4}$ feet[/tex]

Part 4

If x=51 feet

[tex]Height ,h=\dfrac{51\sqrt{15}}{4}$ = 49.38 feet[/tex]

Therefore, a 51 feet ladder would not be enough to climb a 50 feet wall as it would violate the safety rule.

Complete Question

Let A be an n x n matrix, b be a nonzero vector, and x_0 be a solution vector of the system Ax = b. Show that x is a solution of the non-homogeneous system Ax = b if and only if y = x - x_0 is a solution of the homogeneous system Ay = 0.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

    A is an  n × n matrix

   b is a zero vector

  [tex]x_o[/tex] us the solution vector of  [tex]Ax = b[/tex]

Which implies that  

     [tex]Ax_o = b[/tex]

So first we show that

  if [tex]x[/tex] is the solution matrix of [tex]Ax = b[/tex]

  and  [tex]y= x-x_o[/tex] is the solution of  [tex]Ay = 0[/tex]

Then

    [tex]A(x-x_o) = 0[/tex]

=>   [tex]Ax -Ax_o = 0[/tex]

=>   [tex]b-b = 0[/tex]

Secondly to show that

   if  [tex]y= x-x_o[/tex] is the solution of  [tex]Ay =0[/tex]

  then x is the solution of the non-homogeneous system

    [tex]Ax = b[/tex]

Now we know that [tex]y = x-x_o[/tex] is the solution of  [tex]Ay =0[/tex]

So

     [tex]Ay = 0[/tex]

=>  [tex]A(x- x_o) = 0[/tex]

=>   [tex]Ax - Ax_o = 0[/tex]

=>   [tex]Ax - b = 0[/tex]

=>    [tex]Ax = b[/tex]

Thus this has been proved

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the random variable representing the dollar value of unusual activity for a customer in a month. Since it is normally distributed and the population mean and population standard deviation are known, we would apply the formula,

z = (x - µ)/σ

Where

x = sample mean

µ = population mean

σ = standard deviation

From the information given,

µ = 250

σ = √variance = √2400 = 48.99

a) the probability of $250 to $294 in unusual activity in a month is expressed as

P(250 ≤ x ≤ 294)

For x = 250,

z = (250 - 250)/48.99 = 0

Looking at the normal distribution table, the probability corresponding to the z score is 0.5

For x = 294

z = (294 - 250)/48.99 = 0.9

Looking at the normal distribution table, the probability corresponding to the z score is 0.8159

Therefore,

P(250 ≤ x ≤ 294) = 0.8159 - 0.5 = 0.3159

b) the probability of more than $294 in unusual activity in a month is expressed as

P(x > 294) = 1 - P(x < 294)

P(x > 294) = 1 - 0.8159 = 0.1841

c) since n = 10, the formula becomes

z = (x - µ)/(σ/n)

z = (294 - 250)/(48.99/√10) = 2.84

Looking at the normal distribution table, the probability is 0.9977

Therefore, the probability that at least one of these customers exceeds $294 in unusual activity in a month is

1 - 0.9977 = 0.0023

Answer:

The one with the better deal would be 30 ride tickets for $22.50 this is because you pay less money for more rides.

Step-by-step explanation:

First you divide 20 by 14. Doing this will give you the cost of a ride per ticket.

20/14 = 1.42

Then you do the same thing to 30 and 22.50.

30/22.50 = 1.30

Last you compare which deal has less money per ride.

1.42 > 1.30

_______________________________

Hey!!

Answer:{2,4,5}

Explanation:

Let R be relation from A to B.The set of second components or the set of elements of B are called range.

Hope it helps..

_______________________________

Answer:

As  [tex]{x \to \infty}, \,\,{f(x) \to -\infty[/tex]  and as  [tex]{x \to -\infty}, \,\,{f(x) \to \infty[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Please look at the plotted points in the attached image. There we see that as x grows toward infinity (to the right), the values for f(x) seem to become more negative (so f(x) seems to go towards  minus infinity).

As we move towards the left with values of x (x going towards negative infinity, f(x) seems to become more and more positive (grow toward infinity)

Answer:

8.55 days for a decay rate parameter of 8.1% per day

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming a decay rate parameter of  8.1% per day

the general equation for radioactive decay is;

N = N₀e^(-λt)

x - decay constant (λ) - rate of decay 

t-  time 

N - amount remaining after t days , since we are calculating the half life, amount of time it takes for the substance to to be half its original value, its N₀/2

N₀ - amount initially present 

substituting the values 

N₀/2 = N₀e^(-0.081t)

0.5 = e^(-0.081t)

ln (0.5) = -0.081t

-0.693 = -0.081t

t = 0.693 / 0.081  = 8.55

half life of substance is 8.55 days 

Answer:

The answer is C

Step-by-step explanation:

did the quiz

Answer:

He is right it C just did the quiz let him have the brainly ;)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

The base of a log is also the base of an exponent. So 7 to the c power, our 7 would be the base. To find c, we simply just do log base 7 of 49, which comes out to be 2.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

0.00039 hm

Answer:

0.00039 hm is ur answer....

3.9 cm to 0.00039 hm...

Mark me as Brainlist...

Answer:

They got £84 altogether.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can see that Richard get's 6 parts and Stephen gets 1 part. We can subtract these two to get 5 parts. We know that five parts equals £60, so we can divide by 5 to get 1 part equals £12. We are looking for the amount they got altogether, which is equal to 7 parts, 6 parts + 1 part. We multiply £12 by 7, leaving us with £84, which is our answer.