Answer:
Acid
At the simplest definition, an acid is any compound that yields hydrogen ions (H +) or hydronium ions (H 3O +) when dissolved in water. Hydronium ions are really the combination of H + ions and H 2O molecules
Explanation:
what is the function of the pancreas
Explanation:
the function of the pancreas that it secretes enzymes that work in tandem with bile from the liver and gallbladder to help breakdown substances for proper digestion and absorption.
Answer:
Releases insulin.
Explanation:
Ash trees are being removed when they show signs of the ash borer, a parasite that affects only ash trees and kills them off. What best explains why the ash trees are being cut down?
Answer:
The Ash Trees with Ash Borer are being cut down as a way to maintain the stability of the other Ash Trees.
Explanation:
As stated in the information given, "Ash trees are being removed when they show signs of the Ash Borer, a parasite that affects only Ash Trees and kills them off."
To preserve the other trees, these trees with the parasite must be cut down as a way to stop other trees from gaining this parasite. Its a preservation method for Ash Trees.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
D
Explanation:
answer on edge
Consider how the following behaviors, characteristics, or facts affect the risk for CVD. Determine whether each increases, decreases, or has no effect on the risk for CVD.
a. Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels
b. having reduced HDL cholesterol levels
c. being a premenopausal woman
d. being exposed to secondhand smoke
e. participating in exercise
f. having elevated HDL cholesterol levels.
Answer:
Explanation:
Having elevated LDL cholesterol levels - this increases the risk for CVD as it also brings about CHD
Having reduced HDL cholesterol levels- this increases the risk of CVD as a low HDL increases omes risk of CVD at lower rates
Being a premenopausal woman - I dont think this has any effect on the risk for CVD
Being exposed to secondhand smoke -
This also increases the risk of stroke associated with CVD
- participating in exercise: this decreases the risk of CVD
Having elevated HDL cholesterol levels - this decreases ones risk of CVD as it helps to clear cholesterol from arteries delivering them back to the lover and reducing the risk for CVD
Why would a drop in blood pH have an undesirable effect on the proximal histidine's function?a. A drop in pH would make deprotonation more likely, and a deprotonated proximal histidine would be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme.b. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to donate its electron density to the iron atom.c. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme due to its positive charge.
Answer:
c. A drop in pH would make protonation more likely, and a protonated proximal histidine would not be able to hydrogen bond to O2 to stabilize its binding to the heme due to its positive charge.
Explanation:
Protonation refers to the addition of proton or H+ to the atom or molecule. If the pH of blood drop means acidic so it causes adverse effect on the function of proximal histidine because the proximal histidine gain proton and become cation. Due to this proton, proximal histidine is unable to make hydrogen bond between heme and oxygen and the blood is unable to transport more oxygen with hemoglobin from the lungs.
how does a cell membrane differ from a cell wall
Answer:
It is the outer non-living part of the cell but not an organelle which encloses cell membrane and provides a fixed shape. It is an outermost, flexible, living organelle of the cell which provides shape to the cell. The cell wall is elastic. The cell membrane is non-elastic.
which fungi group is known as the zygote fungi and produces spores in zygos[orangia?
Answer:
zygomcota
Explanation:
discovered in Winter 1881
Drag the tiles to the boxes to form correct pairs match the type of water with the location in which it is found
The correct answers are water vapor- atmosphere; surface water -river; ice- glacier; and groundwater -well
Explanation:
Water is an abundant substance on Earth that exists in all states in it. This includes liquid water, which can be found on the Earth surface in water bodies such as rivers, oceans, lakes, ponds, etc. This implies the word that matches surface water is rivers. Additionally, this type of water is usually the ecosystem for many organisms. Besides this, liquid water can be found under the surface, which is known as groundwater, this is located under rocks and soil, despite this, it can be extracted and used for consumption, and one way to do this is through wells. Thus, the word that matches groundwater is well.
On the other hand, water can be found in a gaseous state as this evaporates from the surface of Earth, then raises to the atmosphere, and forms clouds. Thus, the main source of water vapor is the atmosphere. Also, this changes its states as it condensates and falls in the form of rain. Finally, water can be found in solid-state in ice, which is abundant in glaciers, the poles of the Earth, and at high elevations, because ice is the result of water being exposed to low temperatures. Thus, the word that matches ice is glacier.
Answer:
Ice: glacier
Groundwater: A Well
Water Vapor: Atmosphere
Surface Water: The river
Explanation:
PLATO answers
Does specific heat also mean the amount of energy needed for cooling, or is it only energy for heating?
Answer:
yes it does
here is a more clearer explanation
Explanation:
The specific heat capacity of water is 4,200 Joules per kilogram per degree Celsius (J/kg°C). This means that it takes 4,200 J to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C.
Some other examples of specific heat capacities are:
Material Specific heat capacity (J/kg/°C)
Brick 840
Copper 385
Lead 129
Lead will warm up and cool down fastest because it doesn’t take much energy to change its temperature. Brick will take much longer to heat up and cool down. This is why bricks are sometimes used in storage heaters as they stay warm for a long time. Most heaters are filled with oil (1,800 J/kg°C) or water (4,200 J/kg°C) as these emit a lot of energy as they cool down and, therefore, stay warm for a long time.
The specific heat capacity of a material is the energy required to raise one kilogram (kg) of the material by one degree Celsius (°C).
2.Black fur(B) in guinea pigs is dominant over white fur(b). Find theprobability of an offspring with the same phenotype as its parents in across between a homozygous black and a heterozygous black guineapig
.A. 0%,
25%B.25%,
25%C.50%,50%
D.75%, 25%
E.100%, 0%
Answer:
Option d: black 75%, white 25%
Explanation:
The cross is between a homozygous black and a heterozygous black guinea pig
Parents gen. BB x Bb
F1 generation BB Bb Bb bb
The probability of an offspring with the same phenotype as its parents is
Genotype: BB - 25% and Bb - 50%, bb-25%
Phenotype: black 75%, white 25%
true or false if you click on the name of a structure you identified incorrectly or correctly you will be taken to the module in APR where you can review this structure
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
When you are given a given structure and you ick on it to know if its correct or wrong you will be taken to a module on APR where u can review this structure and see clearly if it's right or wrong. That is how the website as be programmed. Once you click on it, u are automatically directed to APR to review and clarify your answers.
write down two differences between axon and dendrites.
Answer:
Axon takes information or impulse away from the cell body, whereas Dendrites bring information or impulse to the cell body of the neuron. Axons are long and single per cell and dendrites are short and multiple Axons don't have any ribosomes and Dendrites do.
reaaallly need help!!
Why are detritivores, decomposers and omnivores not assigned trophic levels
Answer:
The reason is because detritivores and decomposers and omnivores are multilevel food chain consumers in an ecosystem making them not qualified to be assigned to a given trophic level
Explanation:
An organism is placed in a trophic level based the level it is from where the food chain starts with the start of the food chain having a level of 1 for the food producers such including plants and algae
Level 2 organisms are called primary consumers and consists of organism that eat only plants known as herbivores such as cattle
Level 3 organisms are called secondary consumers and consists of animal eating organism known as carnivores such as foxes etc.
Level 4 organisms are called tertiary consumers
Level 5 organisms are the a p e x p r e d a t o r s
Detritivores and decomposers such as bacteria, earthworm flies fungi consume the wastes produced at all trophic levels, therefore they cannot be assigned to a particular trophic level
Similarly, omnivores consumes both plants at level 2 and animals at level 3 making it ambiguous to assign them to one particular trophic level.
What must occur in order for a matter to change states? A: Heat must be added or removed B: A chemical change must occur C: Other substances must be added D: The temperature must change
Answer:a chemical change must occur to change states
Explanation:
Chemical changes are irreversible, physical changes however dont affect the structure of the molecule of whatever it is
Answer:
Hey!
Your answer is A: Heat must be added or removed
Explanation:
For example...
To change water from a liquid to a solid, you have to change its molecular composition and change the bondages between the Hydrogen and Oxygen molecules...
This is only done when you add heat / remove through Vaporization / Condensation!
To change a substance's state is a REVERSIBLE process meaning you have to add or remove energy (heat) to change its state!
Choose the correct definition and two examples of radiative energy.
radiative energy is energy in light. Sunlight carries this form of energy, as do other forms of light including X-rays and radio waves.
carbohydrates are used for what
Carbohydrates are used for short term energy. It also stores energy.
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Function of carbohydrates
Carbohydrates provide fuel for the central nervous system and energy for working muscles. They also prevent protein from being used as an energy source and enable fat metabolism, according to Iowa State University. Also, "carbohydrates are important for brain function," Smathers said.
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Sleve tubes are found in which vascular tissue?
OA. phloem
OB. xylem
Oc.
tracheids
Answer:
A. phloem
Explanation:
Which organ system
provides oxygen so that
exercising muscle fibers
can efficiently produce
ATP?
Answer:
lungs
Explanation:
idk if I'm correct I'm just guessing
what cell structure is largely responsible for controlling the entry and exit of substances into or out of the cell?
Answer:
plasma membrane
Explanation:
The plasma membrane is also known as the cell membrane. It is the boundary between the internal components of a cell and its external surroundings. It controls the entry and exit of substances into or out of the cell and thus, facilitates the exchange of substances between the cells and their external environment.
What happens during telophase of the cell cycle? A. Chromosomes are pulled apart. B. Chromosomes line up. C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears. D. Chromosomes condense
Answer:
C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears.
Explanation:
Answer: C. Chromosomes uncoil and the nucleus reappears.
Explanation:
Telophase is the final stage of the cell cycle which involves the separation of daughter cells.
Hope it helps .
The color of the mustard plant in Lab 4 (Natural Selection) was determined by a single gene with two alleles (Y or y). The Y allele was dominant to y allele, and Y gave us a green plant, and yy a yellow-green plant. You measure the following genotype frequencies: YY = 0.5; Yy = 0.25; yy = 0.25. You calculate the following Hardy-Weinberg Frequencies: YY = 0.30; Yy = 0.56; yy = 0.14 This population looks like it has evolved. We can tell this because : Group of answer choices
Answer and Explanation:
It occurs evolution whenever the allelic frequencies in the genic pool change. If the population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, it is because one, some, or several of the model's assumptions are not met. If we want to know if a population is evolving, we must observe the frequencies of the population, and if they change over time. If there is a change, it might also be reflected in the phenotypic frequencies.
In the exposed example there was an evident change in the population genetic frequencies.
1) Genotype frequencies: YY = 0.5; Yy = 0.25; yy = 0.25
Genic or Alleleic frequency:
Frequency of y= f(q)= √0.25 =0.5Frequency of Y= f(p)= 1- 0.5 =0.52) Hardy-Weinberg Frequencies: YY = 0.30; Yy = 0.56; yy = 0.14
Genic or Alleleic frequency:
Frequency of y= f(p)= √0.14 =0.374
Frequency of Y= f(p)= 1- 0.5 =0.626
The allelic frequencies and hence the genotypic frequencies changes, so we can assume that there was evolution.
Why are tanning beds not safe
Answer:
skin damages.
Explanation:
it hads UVA and UBV rays which cost the skin to be damaged by the rays. it can also make you have skin cancer.
These five concepts provide a modem interpretation of Mendelian postulates.
- Inheritance is governed by information stored in discrete factors called genes.
- Genes are transmitted from generation to generation on vehicles called chromosomes.
- Chromosomes, which exist in pairs in diploid organisms, provide the basis of biparental inheritance.
- During gamete formation, chromosomes are distributed according to postulates first described by Gregor Mendel, based on his nineteenth-century research with the garden pea.
- Mendelian postulates prescribe that homologous chromosomes segregate from one another and assort independently with other segregating homologous during gamete formation.
Based on these concepts, choose statements that correlate Mendel's four postulates with what is now known about genes, alleles, and homologous chromosomes.
Select the five correct statements.
a. Some gene pairs on nonhomologous chromosomes can aggregate after separation and mitosis or meiosis would stop.
b. Some genes have dominant and recessive alleles.
c. Unit factors occur in pairs.
d. Some possible gametic combinations are formed with higher probability if dominant alleles take part in meiosis.
e. During mitosis and meiosis, when chromosomes are visible in their characteristic shapes. members of a homologous pair have different sizes and exhibit opposite centromere locations.
f. Different gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes will separate independently from each other during meiosis.
g. Alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation at anaphase
h. Dominant alleles can become codominant alleles during mitosis.
e. One gene pair separates independently from other gene pairs.
Answer:
b. Some genes have dominant and recessive alleles.
C. Unit factors occur in pairs.
e. During mitosis and meiosis, when chromosomes are visible in their characteristic shapes. members of a homologous pair have different sizes and exhibit opposite centromere locations
f. Different gene pairs on non-homologous chromosomes will separate independently from each other during meiosis.
g. Alleles segregate from each other during gamete formation at anaphase
Explanation:
Mendel's postulates of inheritance are: (1) Principles of Paired Factors (2) Principle of Dominance(3) Law of Segregation or Law of Purity of Gametes (Mendel’s First Law of Inheritance) and (4) Law of Independent Assortment (Mendel’s Second Law of Inheritance).
Each of these laws provide information on how inheritance of traits by offspring from parents occur.
Principle of paired factors:
A character is represented in an organism (diploid) by at least two factors. The two factors lie on the two homologous chromosomes at the same locus or position.
Principle of Dominance:
Dominant characters are those which always appear in every generatio whereas recessive characters may not appear in some generations e.g. F1 generation.
Law of segregation:
During the formation of gametes (egg or pollen), the paired genes separate or segregate randomly so that each gamete receives one or the other with equal likelihood
Law of Independent assortment:
During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors (genes) assort independently of each other.
From the above consideration,
Option A is wrong because it doesn't correlate with the law of Independent assortment
Option B is correct based on the second postulate
Option C is correct based on the first postulate
Option D is wrong based on the law of segregation which assigns equal likely to gene separation
Option E is correct based on recent studies of genes
Option F is correct based on the law of Independent assortment
Option G is correct based on recent studies on genes
Option H is wrong because dominant genes remain dominant. Co-dominance occurs when allelic pairs are neither dominant nor recessive
Option 'e' is wrong because independent assortment occurs between pairs of genes with contrasting character not a gene pair having the same character where only segregation occurs.
flowers contain structures that are responsible for which process?
a- Germination ,
b-Reproduction ,
c-Respiration ,
d-transpiration
Answer: B: Reproduction
Explanation: Generally, flowers are the reproductive organs of plant. All its structures are geared towards the reproduction process
Why does the growth of dodder eventually lead to the death of a host plant?
Answer:
it deprives the plant of nutrients
Explanation:
Assume that plant weight is determined by a pair of alleles at each of two independently assorting loci (A and a, B and b) that are additive in their effects. Further assume that each allele represented by an uppercase letter contributes 4 g to weight and that each allele represented by a lowercase letter contributes 1 g to weight. If a plant with genotype AA BB is crossed with a plant with genotype aa bb, what weights are expected in the F_a progeny?
A. 1 g
B. 4 g
C. 8 g
D. 10 g
Answer: choice D. 10g
Explanation:
The cross is AABB x aabb so the F1 progeny would have AaBb genotype.
The question states that dominant alleles(uppercase letters) contribute 4g and recessive ones contribute 1g to the weight of the plant.
so for AaBb we would have 4+1+4+1=10g.
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
Which is a negative impact on the earth caused by human population growth?
Answer:
Humans impact the physical environment in many ways: overpopulation, pollution, burning fossil fuels, and deforestation. Changes like these have triggered climate change, soil erosion, poor air quality, and undrinkable water.
Explanation:
Hope this helped.
Answer:
Destruction of Natural Habitats
Explanation:
7. A similarity between New Zealand and Australia is that- *
the native populations in both countries are the Aboriginies.
the monarch for both countries is Queen Elizabeth II.
neither country depends on tourism to boost their economy.
the nickname "Kiwi" refers to both Australians and New Zealanders.
Answer:
the monarch for both countries is Queen Elizabeth II.
Explanation: They are Island nations of the south Pacific.
The two countries were colonized by Abel Tasman, but were colonized by the British.Therefore recognized the Queen as the monarch. They both have a stable society and progressive movements. Both countries have good standard of living, with high sense of innovation and share almost the same type of food, wines, culture and music. They also have one of the best Diary farms in the world. They love the same sports-Rugby.
list and explain the three classes of enzymes
Answer:
Oxidoreductases, transferases and hydrolases are the most abundant forms of enzymes.
Explanation:
Which is a factor that determines whether a molecule can cross a cell membrane?
Answer:
if a molecule is too large it cannot pass. also it depends on the concentration of a specific substance inside the cell. similarly, if a molecule is polar it cannot penetrate the phospholipid bilayer.
there are proteins that work as channels and pumps that allow these molecules to pass
Explanation:
The polarity of the molecule determines whether a molecule can cross a cell membrane. The correct option is D.
What is polarity?The asymmetric establishment of several cellular components, such as the plasma membrane, cytoskeleton, or organelles, is alluded to as cell polarity.
The polarity of the molecule determines whether a molecule can cross a cell membrane as the cell membrane is composed of phospholipids which are polar in nature.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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The missing options of the question are:
Speed.Texture.Mass.Polarity.