3. What is the name of the process by which evolution occurs?
Answer:
Evolution is the process of genetic change from one generation to the next and may be caused by several methods. In essence, evolution occurs when some individuals or some alleles (gene types) reproduce themselves more than others,increasing their prevalence in subsequent generations.
Explanation:
1. What are the two types of digestion?
Answer:
Mechanical digestion
Chemical digestion
Explanation:
Food is physically broken into smaller parts. For instance, by chewing.
Food is broken down by acids and enzymes into its basic units.
How N-formylmethionine (fMet) is only associated with the 5' AUG initiation codon and not with internal AUG codons, given that methionine in both cases in encoded by an AUG in the mRNA.
Answer:
Different transfer RNAs (tRNAs) selectively bind to N-terminal and internal AUG codons of bacterial polypeptides .
Explanation:
In prokaryotic organisms, N-formylmethionine (fMet) is coded by the start codon (AUG), thereby generating the most N-terminal residue of bacterial proteins. This residue (fMet) is a modified methionine amino acid that contains attached a formyl group to its amino group. Remarkably, it has been shown that formylmethionyl-tRNA only can bind to this initial AUG codon, while methionyl-tRNA binds to internal AUG codons.
Which current is a warm ocean current that flows completely around Earth?
a) North Equatorial Current
b) California Current
c) West Wind Drift
d) Gulf Stream
Answer:
gulf stream
Explanation:
it transports warm water from the equator past the east coast of north america and across the atlantic to europe
The map of ocean currents shows that the surface ocean currents create loops called gyres. The Gulf stream current is a warm ocean current that flows completely around Earth.
What is gulf stream?Gulf stream is a strong ocean current bringing warm water into Atlantic ocean to Gulf of Mexico.
The Gulf Stream is in the western North Atlantic Ocean. It moves north with the coast of Florida and then moves eastward off of North Carolina, flowing northeast across the Atlantic.
Thus, the correct option is d.
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if the climate is hot what will happen to the water cycle, and if the climate is cold what will happen to the water cycle?
Answer:
Climate change intensifies this cycle because as air temperatures increase, more water evaporates into the air. Warmer air can hold more water vapor,
So, higher temperatures means more evaporation while low temperatures means less evaporation.
what are primitive features of lycopodium?
Answer:
Lycopodium is known as Club moss. It is a vascular plant which makes it an advanced type of plant. It however has some primitive features which includes Production of spores. The plant has an underground sexual reproduction system which produces gametes for this process and also produces spores which are used in asexual reproduction of the plant. The two forms alternate with each other. Another primitive feature is their lack of flowers.
both ethanol and glycine are small molecules of approximately equal molecular weight. However, ethanol is much more membrane permeable than glycine. What accounts for the large difference in membrane permeability between ethanol and glycine
Answer:
Ethanol is a non polar molecule.Therefore it passes through the cells membrane easily by diffusion like other non polar like CO2 and water.However, glycine is an amino acid ( the simplest amino acid) a charged molecule /polar molecule/.it can not therefore pass through the bilayer by simple diffusion because of the phospholipid bi-layers. Therefore special transport proteins are needed for its passage across the cell membrane.
Example-GLYT 1 and 2 are the carrier proteins specific for glycine transport across the membrane.
G
Explanation:
Polypeptides are chains of amino acids linked together in a specific order.
What type of bonds are formed between these amino acids?
Choose 1 answer:
Peptide bonds
Glycosidic linkages
Hydrogen bonds
Ester linkage
Answer: peptide bonds
Explanation:
A peptide bond is a chemical bond formed between two molecules when the carboxyl group of one molecule reacts with the amino group of the other molecule, releasing a molecule of water.
This is a dehydration synthesis reaction (also known as a condensation reaction), and usually occurs between amino acids.
Your phylogenetic analysis resulted in 100 equally optimal trees and you would like to summarize the results showing only clades that are found in all trees. Therefore, you would use the:______
a. Majority rule consensus algorithm
b. Strict consensus algorithm
c. Adams consensus algorithm
d. The bootstrap algorithm
Answer:
The correct answer is option B.
Explanation:
Strict consensus algorithm is the most restrictive approach that includes only that components that are shared by all the members of the group. In the strict consensus tree only those trees would be considered shared clades by all the trees.
The clades must be exact same or replicated in all the trees in this type of algorithm to analysis of the phylogenetic group. A 100% threshold in support leads to the Strict consensus trees algorithm.
Thus, the correct answer is : option B.
Which of the following is an example of protein denaturation?
Choose 1 answer:
A) Amino acids fold into repeating patterns due to hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone.
B) Several amino acids are joined together via peptide bonds.
C) A protein binds with a substrate, lowering the activation energy of a reaction.
D) A protein is exposed to extremely high heat, causing it to lose its secondary structure and be
left with only its primary structure.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Denaturation occurs when the protein deforms and loses its structure.
According to the question, A protein is exposed to extremely high heat, causing it to lose its secondary structure and be left with only its primary structure.
What is protein denaturation and how does it happen?A protein becomes denatured when its normal shape gets deformed because some of the hydrogen bonds are broken.
Weak hydrogen bonds break when too much heat is applied or when they are exposed to an acid.
Thus, option "D" is correct.
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A young man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiences sudden fever with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and have difficulty breathing, and goes to an urgent care clinic. His blood pressure is low. A blood sample reveals a low platelet count. A Gram stain of a sputum sample shows only a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent?
A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Hantavirus
C) Histoplasma capsulatum
D) influenza
E) Mycoplasma pneumonia
Answer:
The correct answer is: B) Hantavirus.
Explanation:
Hantavirus is an infectious disease caused by a family of viruses that exist in rodents such as rats. These viruses can either cause Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS), especially in the Americas; or Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS), which is most common in Europe and Asia.
The young man described has symptoms that match the common symptoms of Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome, such as fever and muscle aches (known as the 'early symptoms'), as also coughing and having difficulty breathing (known as the 'late symptoms'). Some of these symptoms can easily be confused with Influenza, but the shortness of breath and the fact that the patient has a history of working and living in a rural environment suggest Hantavirus.
HPS also produces a low platelet count and high white cell count.
Infection by Bacillus anthracis is uncommon, plus the lack of symptoms that match the disease (such as a sore throat) and the existence of muscle aches in the patient (which does not match Anthrax) can help discard this option.
Histoplasma capsulatum is a fungus that can cause lung infection when its spores are inhaled. Its symptoms are similar to HPS but with the addition of red bumps in the legs and joint pain, not muscle aches.
Mycoplasma pneumonia is a bacteria that produces pneumonia. Most of its symptoms match the patient except for the lack of a sore throat.
A scientist discovers a cell that has chloroplasts, cytoplasm, DNA, and a cell membrane. Which statement best describes how
the cell could be classified?
Answer: The cell is eukaryotic because it has chloroplasts. A scientist is studying a cell and can clearly see that it has ribosomes and mitochondria.
Explanation:
Answer:
The cell is eukaryotic because it has chloroplasts. A scientist is studying a cell and can clearly see that it has ribosomes and mitochondria.
Explanation:
Just took the test 2020
Some parts of the worlds rainforests haven’t been studied closely, and may contain species of plants which have benefits for humans. ‘Suggest and explain uses of stem cells taken from the meristem of a new species of plant.’
To determine the similarity of stem cells of one species of plant with that of another: By determining the similarity between the stem cells taken from two different species, it can be identified whether there is a possibility of clowning, of giving birth to new and improved species of plants that are beneficial for mankind, or that of interchanging the stem cells to boost up or slow down the growth of the plants. To determine whether the stem cells can be altered and reintroduced to make the plants grow in a specified manner: By altering and modifying the stem cells and reintroducing them back again, it is possible to restrict the growth of the plant to a specific size or shape. This trait of the stem cells can be used to make the plantation possible in compact areas as well as to grow the plants in the desired shapes.
To determine whether the speed of division of cells at the roots and appendages of the plant can be modified: By restricting or boosting the speed of the division of meristem cells using modified stem cells, the plant can be made to grow faster in a specific season and slower in another. This feature can be used to lower the vulnerability of the plant species towards various natural weathering actions.
Stem cells extracted from the meristem can be precisely examined for their effectiveness against illnesses that harm portions of the plants such as the roots, shoots, and appendages to ascertain the resistance against various plant diseases.
What is meristem?They can thus also be utilized to rebuild the damaged plant tissues if the newly discovered species becomes extinct.
It can be determined whether there is a chance of clowning, or of giving birth to new and improved species of plants that are beneficial to mankind.
Therefore, Stem cells extracted from the meristem can be precisely examined for their effectiveness against illnesses that harm portions of the plants such as the roots, shoots, and appendages to ascertain the resistance against various plant diseases.
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Which phase the cell cycle would the cell stop in if you disrupted:_______.
1. the protein DNA polymerase S phase.
2. the depolymerization of the microtubules metaphase.
3. the polymerization of actin cytokenesis.
4. the protein ligase S phase.
5. the chiasmata formation.
The interphase (G1, S, and G2 phases) precedes meiosis (Meiosis 1 and meiosis 2). Immediately after meiosis, cytokinesis occurs.
1: S phase / 2: Anaphase 1 and 2 / 3: cytokinesis / 4: S phase / 5: Prophase 1.
---------------------------------
The interphase occurs before cell division. It is composed of the G1, S, and G2 stages.
During the S stage occurs the DNI replication process. At this point, also happens the synthesis of histones and other associated proteins. This is the only stage where the DNI molecule is replicated.
Among the enzymes involved in the DNA replication process, two of them are
DNA polymerase III• Responsible for DNA elongation by adding nucleotides to the growing chain, from 3' to 5' extremes.
• It includes only nucleotides that complement the original strand.
• They need to recognize a primer to begin.
DNA polymerase I eliminate ARN primers and substitute them with DNA. DNA ligase seals the gaps that remain after replacing the primers by reestablishing phosphodiester bonds. They also bind the Okasaki fragments during the discontinuous strain synthesis.1. the protein DNA polymerase >>>>>>> S phase.
4. the protein ligase >>>>>>> S phase.
****************************************************
Through Meiosis, a diploid cell (2n) produces four haploid daughter cells (n).
After DNA replication there are two meiotic phases.
The first one is a reductive phase, in which homologous chromosomes separate. In the second phase, the cell suffers a new, not reductive division.During prophase 1 of meiosis, each chromosome carefully pairs with its homologous chromosome.
Crossing-over is the interchange of genetic information between two homologous chromosomes, making the daughter cells genetically different from the original one.
The point where the interchange of genetic information occurs is the chiasma.
5. the chiasma formation >>>>>>> propahase I
****************************************************
Antiparallel microtubules between the separating chromosomes compose the spindle apparatus.
These fibers get elongated during the anaphase, while chromosomes or chromatids migrate to the opposite poles of the cell.
The depolarization of the microtubules drives the chromosomes or chromatids to segregate during the anaphase.
2. the depolymerization of the microtubules >>>>>> anaphase I and II
****************************************************
Actin is a globular protein. Actin filaments are composed of the polymerization of the protein.
Among their many functions, actin polymers are involved in cytokinesis.
The final strangulation of the cytoplasm during the division process occurs through the organization of actin filaments.
Filaments form a ring structure, which progressively narrows its diameter until the complete separation of the two daughter cells.
3. the polymerization of actin >>>>>>> cytokenesis
*******************************
1. the protein DNA polymerase >>>>>>>>> S phase.
2. the depolymerization of the microtubules >>>>>>>>> anaphase I and II.
3. the polymerization of actin >>>>>>>>> cytokenesis.
4. the protein ligase >>>>>>>>> S phase
5. the chiasmata formation >>>>>>>>>>> prophase I
-----------------------------------------
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A botanist has acquired a group of pea plants. All of the pea plants have yellow pea pods (the recessive form of this trait) except for one, which has green pea pods (the dominant form of this trait). The botanist decides to use a test cross to determine the genotype of the green pea pod plant for this trait. The botanist performed the test cross and found the following: 50% of the offspring had yellow pea pods and 50% of the offspring had green pea pods. Based on this information, what was the genotype of the initial green pea pod plant
Answer:
Hetezygous
Explanation:
The genotype of the initial green pod plant would be heterozygous.
Let pea pod color be represented by C (c) alleles.
First, let us assume that the genotype of the green pea pod plant is homozygous dominant, CC. This was crossed with homozygous recessive, cc.
CC x cc
Cc Cc Cc Cc
All the progeny will have Cc genotype with phenotypically green color. This is in contrast to the result obtained from the test cross in the illustration, hence the genotype of the initial green pea pod plant cannot be homozygous dominant.
Now, let us assume that the genotype is Heterozygous, Cc.
Cc x cc
Cc Cc cc cc
50% of the progeny has Cc genotype with phenotypically green color while the remaining 50% has cc genotype with phenotypically yellow color. This is consistent with the result from the illustration.
Hence, the genotype of the initial green pea pod plant is heterozygous.
Which of the following body parts has striped muscles?
Answer:
Heart
Explanation:
. If Haily is analyzing samples of chromosomes under a microscope which feature would help her categorize the different samples? A. Genetic makeup B. Arm length C. Shape D. Centromere placement E. None of the above
Answer:
B. Arm length
C. Shape
D. Centromere placement
Explanation:
Cytogenetics is a discipline that study the structure and number of chromosomes including their morphology, position of the centromere, arm length, staining bands, etc. These features can be observed by microscope and enable us to identify different genome rearrangements (i.e., translocations, deletions, centric fusion, chromosome duplications, etc.) by ilustrating chromosomes in defined pictures referred to as karyotypes. In consequence, they are chromosome features that can be used in order to categorize different samples.
Explain phloem structure and function, using the following terms: sieve elements, sieve cells, companion cells, girdling, translocation, sieve areas, P-proteins, non-reducing sugars.
Answer:
Explanation:
Phloem cells are conducting vessels that are found in vascular plant. They are used in the transport of photosynthate produce during photosynthesis from the source of production to other parts of the body.
It consist of sieve elements, which are the conducting vessel that aids transport of sugar round the body. They are very active before maturity at mature they are no longer in use.
Companion cells are used in replacement of sieve element at maturity, they function in metabolism together with the sieve tube Translocation is the transport or movement of sugar round the body.
Girdlings is the removal of the bark of a plant this can inhibit active transport of food.
Non-reducing sugar are monosacharrides such as glucose that are produce and transported round the body of the plant.
P-protein are found in the plants sap usually in large amount in the sieve elements.
which would provide the body with the most energy ? a.forming bonds between to amino acids b.braking the bonds in a monosaccharide c.braking a single carbon bond d.creating bonds to form a carbohydrates
Answer:
d creating bonds to form a carbohydrate
Explanation:
You discover a new alien race that you decide to call the PAMMARIANS. They are different from us in that they have three sexes, called Q, R, and S. All three sexes must fuse their gametes to form a new PAMMARIAN (and you thought dating on the Earth was hardi). They have nuclear DNA and extrachromosomal organelles, similar to mitochondria, called MITOCHLORIANS, which have their own DNA. The R gender is like human females (they donate the cytoplasm during the mating). Q and S do NOT donate cytoplasm during mating, like human males. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. In a mating, if only the Q gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring WILL HAVE a mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
B. In a mating, if the S and a genders have a mitochlorian DNA mutation, the offspring will be mutant as well.
C. In a mating, if only the R gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring will have NO mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
D. In a mating, if only the gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring WILL HAVE a mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
E. In a mating, if only the Q gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring will have NO mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
Answer:
Option E
Explanation:
In a mating, if only the Q gender individual has a mitochlorian DNA mutation that causes a phenotype, the offspring will have NO mitochlorian mutant phenotype.
It was discovered that an offspring always inherits the mothers mitochondrion DNA including all its defects and not from the father as the mother contributes the bulk of the cytoplasm. Thus, since the gender female is R, if she possess a mutant mitochorlian DNA, the offspring will exhibit that mutant phenotype as care to Q and S that cant pass their mutation on.
What is the answers plz
Answer:
4. The formation and evolutuion of stars and galaxies
Question 57
How do the circulatory system and immune
system work together to respond to an injury?
Increased blood flow allows for an
increase in the exchange of O2 and CO,
at the site of the injury.
Increased blood flow kills healthy cells
which prevents infection at the site of the
injury
Increased blood flow carries white blood
cells to the site of the injury.
Increased blood flow removes infected
cells from the body at the site of the
injury.
Which are examples of active transport across the cell membrane? a. osmosis and diffusion b. diffusion and facilitated diffusion c. osmosis and chemiosmosis d. endocytosis and exocytosis
Answer:
d. endocytosis and exocytosis
Explanation:
These processes bring specific items in/out of the cell through active transport since the particles being brought in are generally large. Water for example, a much smaller particle, would use passive transport through the process of osmosis. Hope this helps!
Endocytosis and exocytosis are examples of active transport across the cell membrane.
Active transport is the movement of substances in and out of the cell through the membrane using energy and occurs against a concentration gradient.
Endocytosis is called the process by which cells incorporate into them molecules, large or small, that cannot pass through the cell membrane.An example is the endocytosis of the complex that is formed between receptor proteins of polypeptide or protein hormones at the level of the plasma membrane.
Exocytosis is the process by which different types of molecules contained in a cytoplasmic vesicle of a cell are secreted outwards.Insulin secretion is done in small pinocytosic vesicles that have insulin in colloidal dispersion, this secretion is in favor of a gradient, since insulin is more concentrated within the cell than in the extracellular space.
Therefore, we can conclude that endocytosis and exocytosis are examples of active transport across the cell membrane.
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Mendel used monohybrid crosses to study the inheritance of pea plant characteristics. In one of his classic experiments, Mendel crossed a purple-flowered plant with a white-flowered plant. All of the offspring plants produced purple flowers.
1. Using the symbols P for the purple allele and p for the white allele, provide the following information:
A. What the genotypes of the Parental Generation plants?
Purple parent: White parent:
B. What is the genotype of the F1 generation?
C. Organisms with two copies of the same allele are called
D. Organisms with two different alleles are called
2. When is it necessary to perform a test cross?
3. In rabbits, brown coat (B) is dominant to white coat (b). A rabbit breeder wants to know the genotype of his best looking male brown rabbit using a test cross. He has brown females and white females available to conduct his breeding experiments.
A. What should be the coat color of the female he must use in this test cross?
B. If the test cross produces seven (7) brown rabbits and one (1) white rabbit, what is the genotype of the brown male rabbit?
4. How is Mendel's Law of Independent related to the events of Meiosis?
5. In your own words, state the Law of Segregation
There are other patterns of inheritance that require explanations beyond the predictions of Mendel's Law of Dominance and Segregation. These patterns are known in biology as non-Mendelian inheritance and include:______.
A. Incomplete dominance
B. Codominance
C. Multiple Alleles
D. Pleiotropy (explained in the first assigned video)
E. X-linked inheritance
F. Epistasis
6. Write in the space provided the type of non-Mendelian inheritance from the list above that matches the descriptions or the examples listed below:
1. When a gene has more than two allele variants.(Example)
2. When a single gene or allele controls the expression of 2 or more traits.
3. When offspring show a blended phenotype, a physical appearance intermediate to the phenotype of both parents
4. When an allele is carried in the X chromosome.
Answer:
Explanation:
A. To produce all purple flowers from a cross between purple and white flowers, it means the parents genotype are dominant homozygous purple and the recessive homozygous white ( PP and pp)
B. The F1 generation will possess a phenotype of purple colour with genotype ( Pp )- heterozygous
C. Organisms with two copies of the same allele are called homozygotes
D. Organisms with two different alleles are called heterozygotes
2. When is it necessary to perform a test cross?
This test is only perform when the identity/genotype of one of the parents is unknown then a testcross is carried out.
3.A The coat color of the female he must use is white...a testcross is done with the recessive parents
B. The genotype of the male brown rabbit is Bb to produce a white rabbit.
4. The law of independent assortment amd meiosis relates in that the independent assortment law talks about independent separatíon of gens from each other and in meiosis, it takes into account the independent separation of homologous chromosomes.
5. The law of segregation of genes takes into account that an individual that is diploid possessing 2 copies of a gene/alleles on each homologous chromosome, that each of these alleles segregation or separate into each gametes, as one allele per gamete.
5. Non-Mendelian inheritance includes all listed below
6.
1. When a gene has more than two allele variants - multiple alleles
2. When a single gene or allele controls the expression of 2 or more traits - Pleitropy e.g. as in the ABO blood group
3. When offspring show a blended phenotype, a physical appearance intermediate to the phenotype of both parents: incomplete dominance
4. When an allele is carried in the X chromosome - X linked inheritance
Answer: the biological
Explanation: the biological
John is a 22-year-old professional skateboarder. He has recently fallen on his left shoulder which caused a severe dislocation of the joint. The clinician fears the impact and the dislocation may have caused damage to all or part of the brachial plexus. After performing a nerve conduction velocity test on Johnâs left arm, it was determined that the ulnar nerve was compromised. Which area of the brachial plexus was affected by the accident?
Answer:
The lower left area where the brachial plexus is, was affected in the axillary fossa.
Specifically in the area of the inferior nerve ramification, in the medial endings.
Explanation:
The brachial plexus is a nervous plexus that is classified into three nerve areas, the upper middle and lower areas, where the upper one faces the lateral nerve branches, the middle one to the posterior, and the lower one to the medial, within the medial nerves. is the ulnar nerve or the ulnar nerve that is the one that damaged John.
Which of the following describes how damaged DNA can lead to a mutation?
A. The damaged DNA stops all protein synthesis by the cell.
B. An error occurs when the damaged DNA is repaired.
C. The segment of DNA that is damaged is transcribed into RNA.
D. The nucleotide sequence of the damaged DNA is restored
perfectly
Answer:
B.an error occurs when the damaged DNA is repairex
Explanation:
the best answer is B
The damaged DNA can lead to a mutation represent that option b. An error occurs when the damaged DNA is repaired.
Reason for damaged DNA?In the case when the DNA is damaged so it should be replicated that shows an incorrect base which should be inserted opposite the site of the damaged base in the strand i.e. complementary.
Due to this, it should become the mutation at the coming replication round.
Moreover, the double-strand DNA split might be repaired.
Hence, the option b is correct.
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Suppose a certain drug is tested in the laboratory and is found to create holes in both mitochondrial membranes. Scientists suspect that the drug will be harmful to human cells because it will inhibit.
A. The formation of alcohol C. Glycolysis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation D. Kreb’s cycle
Answer:
The options to this question is incomplete, the correct options are:
A) the citric acid cycle.
B) oxidative phosphorylation.
C) glycolysis.
D) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
The answer is D
Explanation:
Cellular respiration is an important metabolic process carried out by the cells of living organisms including human cells. Aerobic cellular respiration involves three main stages viz: Glycolysis, Kreb's cycle, and Oxidative phosphorylation. These three processes occur to bring about the breakdown of glucose to synthesize ATP.
Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm while Kreb's cycle and Oxidative phosphorylation both occurs in the matrix and intracellular membrane of the Mitochondrion respectively. Hence, a drug that causes holes in both mitochondrial membranes will affect both Kreb's cycle and Oxidative phosphorylation.
who first recognized the cell as the universal unit of life
Answer: Virchow van Leeuwenhoek
Explanation:
Explain how substitution, insertion, and deletion mutations are similar and different from one another.
Substitution:
Substitution is the switch of codons. A C could be switched to an A, but the original is now substituted for the new codon. This can change the amino acid present or it can be a silent mutation. If the stop codon is switched in, the protein will be cut short and the effects could be very serious.
Insertion:
Insertion is where base pairs are inserted into the DNA. This is different from substitution because nothing is getting switched out, just new ones are getting inserted. The original codons will still be present, just new ones are coming in. Insertions result in a frame-shift, which means everything after the mutation is shifted and nothing will be correct after this. Insertions are more harmful than substitution because it doesn't affect just one amino acid, but many.
Deletion:
Deletion is where some codons or DNA is deleted. This will result in everything after the mutation being incorrect and can cause drastic effects. Deletion is very similar to insertion because they both cause a frame-shift, but also very different because they do the opposite from one another. Deletion is also more harmful than substitution because of the frame-shift and the change in future amino acids.
The diffusion spot diameter with one crystal at 15 min ( mm) is 59 . The rate of diffusion with one crystal So how would I convert this 59 to ( mm/h)?
Answer:
This is straight forward.If there are 60 minutes in one hour, then to convert minutes to hours as requested, simply divide the number of minutes given by 60.Thus if you divided the 59 by 60 it gives you what?round the answer to whole number.
When there is a moment of any solute present in the solution from high concentration to low concentration area is called diffusion.
It will take 0.25 hours to diffuse one crystal.
This can be calculated by:
Given,
Time for one crystal diffusion = 15 minDiameter for one crystal diffusion = 59 mmIn 1 hour there are 60 minutes.
60 minutes = 1 hour.
Then 15 minutes = ? hours
[tex]\dfrac{15 \; \text{minutes}}{60 \; \text{minutes}} = 0.25[/tex]
Therefore, to diffuse one crystal of it will take 0.25 hours.
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