HI!!! CAN SOMEONE HELP ME ON GRAPHING THIS? THANKS, i WILL GIVE YOU 5 STARS AND OTHERS: f(x) = sin(x) – 5

Answer:

DID IT oN EDGEN UITY

Step-by-step explanation:

The first graph correctly represents our piecewise function f(x) = - 1.5x + 3.5 for x < 2 and 4 + x for x ≥ 2.

A function that is piecewise-defined by numerous subfunctions, each of which has a separate domain interval for which it is applicable.

Piecewise definition is more of an expression of the function than it is a property of the function.

Given a piecewise function f(x) = - 1.5x + 3.5 for x < 2 and 4 + x for x ≥ 2.

Now, strictly less or greater than will be shown as an open circle in the graph and less than or greater than equal to will be shown by a closed circle on the graph.

If we observe the first graph when x = 0, y = 3.5, and the end is represented as an open circle which is < 2 and when x ≥ 2 it is 6 and represented with a closed circle.

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Answer:

The probability of getting the same colour twice is approximately 34%.

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting each color is:

Then, we can calculate the probability of getting the color red twice as:

[tex]P(x_1=R;x_2=R)=P(x=R)^2=(3/11)^2=9/121[/tex]

We have to repeat this for the color blue and green:

[tex]P(x_1=B;x_2=B)=P(x=B)^2=(4/11)^2=16/121\\\\P(x_1=G;x_2=G)=P(x=G)^2=(4/11)^2=16/121[/tex]

Then, the probability of getting the same color twice in two spins can be calculated as:

[tex]P=P(x_1=R;x_2=R)+P(x_1=B;x_2=B)+P(x_1=G;x_2=G)=\\\\P=9/121+16/121+16/121\\\\P=41/121\approx0.34[/tex]

Answer:

There were 30 people attending at the start of the concert

Step-by-step explanation:

The coefficient of the value raised to an exponent in these types of functions is always the "starting" value. In your case, '30' is the coefficient, so it is the starting value. FYI: 1.10 is the rate at which the people increase, t is time passed, 20 is a constant, and P is the total number of people after the time goes by.

Answer:

There were 30 people attending at the start of the concert.

Step-by-step explanation:

30 is the coefficient, so that's your starting point, basically.

Answer:

[tex]E_{A} =0.25*160=40[/tex]  

[tex]E_{B} =0.25*160=40[/tex]

[tex]E_{C} =0.4*160=64[/tex]

[tex]E_{D} =0.05*160=8[/tex]  

[tex]E_{F} =0.05*160=8[/tex]  

And now we can calculate the statistic:  

[tex]\chi^2 = \frac{(36-40)^2}{40}+\frac{(42-40)^2}{40}+\frac{(60-64)^2}{64}+\frac{(14-8)^2}{8}+\frac{(8-8)^2}{8} =5.25[/tex]  

The answer would be:

c. 5.25

Step-by-step explanation:

The observed values are given by:

A: 36

B: 42

C: 60

D: 14

E: 8

Total =160

We need to conduct a chi square test in order to check the following hypothesis:  

H0: There is no difference in the proportions for the final grades

H1: There is a difference in the proportions for the final grades

The level of significance assumed for this case is [tex]\alpha=0.01[/tex]  

The statistic to check the hypothesis is given by:  

[tex]\chi^2 =\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{(O_i -E_i)^2}{E_i}[/tex]  

Now we just need to calculate the expected values with the following formula [tex]E_i = \% * total[/tex]  

And the calculations are given by:  

[tex]E_{A} =0.25*160=40[/tex]  

[tex]E_{B} =0.25*160=40[/tex]

[tex]E_{C} =0.4*160=64[/tex]

[tex]E_{D} =0.05*160=8[/tex]  

[tex]E_{F} =0.05*160=8[/tex]  

And now we can calculate the statistic:  

[tex]\chi^2 = \frac{(36-40)^2}{40}+\frac{(42-40)^2}{40}+\frac{(60-64)^2}{64}+\frac{(14-8)^2}{8}+\frac{(8-8)^2}{8} =5.25[/tex]  

The answer would be:

c. 5.25

Now we can calculate the degrees of freedom for the statistic given by:  

[tex]df=(categories-1)=(5-1)=4[/tex]

And we can calculate the p value given by:  

[tex]p_v = P(\chi^2_{4} >5.25)=0.263[/tex]  

The p value is higher than the significance so we have enough evidence to FAIL to reject the null hypothesis

Answer:

7.He borrowed $1853.33

8.She received $28990.936

Step-by-step explanation:

7.Let x be the amount borrowed by Tyson

Rate of interest = 7.5%

Time = 2.5 years

Simple Interest = 347.50

Formula : [tex]Si = \frac{P \times T \times R}{100}[/tex]

Where SI = simple interest

P = Principal

T = Time

R = Rate of interest

Substitute the values in the formula :

[tex]347.50=\frac{x \times 2.5 \times 7.5}{100}\\\frac{347.50 \times 100}{2.5 \times 7.5}=x\\1853.33=x[/tex]

Hence he borrowed $1853.33

8) Principal = 20000

Rate of interest = 9.5%

No. of compounds per year = 2

Time = 4 years

Formula : [tex]A=P(1+\frac{r}{n})z^{nt}[/tex]

Where A= amount

r = Rate of interest

n = no. of compounds

t = time

Substitute the values in the formula :

So, [tex]A=20000(1+\frac{9.5}{200})^{2(4)}[/tex]

A=28990.936

Hence she received $28990.936

Answer:

826

Step-by-step explanation:

a+b=978

a=152

b=978-152=826

Answer: b) 45"

Step-by-step explanation:

Tv's are measured by their diagonal length.

Use Pythagorean Theorem to find the diagonal of the tv.

a² + b² = c²

36² + 27² = c²

1296 + 729 = c²

2025 = c²

√2025 = c

45 = c

            ∠FGK and ∠FGH               Im pretty sure its right

A ray is a half-infinite line. The pairs of non-overlapping angles that share a ray to make a right angle are ∠FGE and ∠FGH.

A half-infinite line (also known as a half-line) with one of the two points and is commonly used to represent a ray. It is assumed to be infinite.

A straight line has an angle of measurement of 180°. And a 90° angle is made when two lines are perpendicular to each other.

As we can see the line EGH is a straight line, and FG is another line that is perpendicular to line EH, therefore, it will form two angles measuring 90°. These angles will be ∠FGE and ∠FGH.

Hence, the pairs of non-overlapping angles that share a ray to make a right angle are ∠FGE and ∠FGH.

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Answer:

Y = 0

X= 1/2

Z = -1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

4x-y+ 2z=-1

-x+y-3z= 1

-x+2y + 5z = 2

Solving simultenously

Y= 4x + 2z -1

Y =1+ 3z+ x

Y =x/2 -( 5z/2) - 1

Equating y will give two equations

3x-z = 2

3x + 11z = -4

Subtracting the equations

-12z =6

Z= -1/2

Substituting z

3x +1/2 = 2

3x = 3/2

X= 1/2

Substituting x and z to find y in

-x+y-3z= 1

-1/2 + y +3/2 = 1

Y = 1-1

Y = 0

Answer: b) is answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution,

16.87+(-98.35)

=16.87-98.35

= -81.48

Hope it helps

Good luck on your assignment

Answer:-81.48

Step-by-step explanation:

16.87 + (–98.35)

-81.48

If you stumble in other questions like there you can use a calculator or ask me. :D hope that helps

Answer:

Quedan 2.083 m^3 de agua en el reservorio.

Equivalen a 2083 litros.

Step-by-step explanation:

Los dueños del restaurante tienen un reservorio de agua cuyo volumen es de 6.25 m^3.

Si han utilizado 2/3 del reservorio, esto implica que aún quedan en el reservorio una tercera parte del volumen original (1/3).

Entonces, la cantidad de metros cúbicos (m^3) de agua que quedan en el reservorio se puede calcular como:

[tex]V=(1/3)\cdot V_0=(1/3)\cdot6.25\,m^3=2.083\,m^3[/tex]

Este valor equivale a un volumen en litros de:

[tex]V=2.083\,m^3\cdot \dfrac{1,000\,l}{1m^3}=2,083\,l[/tex]

Answer:

[tex] P(X \leq 1)= P(X=0) +P(X=1) [/tex]

And using the probability mass function we can find the individual probabiities

[tex]P(X=0)=(15C0)(0.82)^0 (1-0.82)^{15-0}=6.75x10^{-12}[/tex]

[tex]P(X=1)=(15C1)(0.82)^1 (1-0.82)^{15-1}=4.61x10^{-10}[/tex]

And replacing we got:

[tex] P(X \leq 1)= P(X=0) +P(X=1)= 4.68x10^{-10}[/tex]

And for this case yes we can conclude that 1 a significantly low number of adults requiring eyesight​ correction in a sample of 15 since the probability obtained is very near to 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable of interest "number of adults who need correction", on this case we now that:

[tex]X \sim Binom(n=15, p=0.82)[/tex]

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

[tex]P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

[tex]nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}[/tex]

We want to find this probability:

[tex] P(X \leq 1)= P(X=0) +P(X=1) [/tex]

And using the probability mass function we can find the individual probabiities

[tex]P(X=0)=(15C0)(0.82)^0 (1-0.82)^{15-0}=6.75x10^{-12}[/tex]

[tex]P(X=1)=(15C1)(0.82)^1 (1-0.82)^{15-1}=4.61x10^{-10}[/tex]

And replacing we got:

[tex] P(X \leq 1)= P(X=0) +P(X=1)= 4.68x10^{-10}[/tex]

And for this case yes we can conclude that 1 a significantly low number of adults requiring eyesight​ correction in a sample of 15 since the probability obtained is very near to 0

Multiply 2 by 1/2 to get 1.

Multiply 1 by 2/3 to get 2/3.

Multiply 2/3 by 3/4 to get 6/12 = 1/2.

Multiply 1/2 by 4/5 to get 4/10 = 2/5.

Multiply 2/5 by 5/6 to get 10/30 = 1/3.

Multiply 1/3 by 6/7 to get 6/21 = 2/7. (I suspect there's a typo in the question.)

And so on, so that the nth term in the sequence is multiplied by n/(n + 1) to get the (n + 1)th term.

Recursively, the sequence is given by

[tex]\begin{cases}a_1=2\\a_n=\dfrac{n-1}na_{n-1}&\text{for }n>1\end{cases}[/tex]

We can solve this exactly by iterating:

[tex]a_n=\dfrac{n-1}na_{n-1}=\dfrac{n-1}n\dfrac{n-2}na_{n-1}=\dfrac{n-1}n\dfrac{n-2}{n-1}\dfrac{n-3}{n-2}a_{n-3}=\cdots[/tex]

and so on down to

[tex]a_n=\dfrac{(n-1)\cdot(n-2)\cdot(n-3)\cdot\cdots\cdot3\cdot2\cdot1}{n\cdot(n-1)\cdot(n-2)\cdot\cdots\cdot4\cdot3\cdot2}a_1[/tex]

or

[tex]a_n=\dfrac{(n-1)!}{n!}a_1[/tex]

and with lots of cancellation, we end up with

[tex]a_n=\dfrac{a_1}n=\boxed{\dfrac2n}[/tex]

Answer:

Divide 2 by n.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Between 303.5 grams and 316.7 grams

Step-by-step explanation:

The Empirical Rule states that, for a normally distributed random variable:

68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviation of the mean.

99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

In this problem, we have that:

Mean = 310.1 grams

Standard deviation = 6.6 grams

Between what two masses do approximately 68% of the data occur?

By the Empirical Rule, within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

310.1 - 6.6 = 303.5 grams

310.1 + 6.6 = 316.7 grams

Between 303.5 grams and 316.7 grams

3/4, 6/8, 9/12, 12/16 , 15/20, 18/24, 21/28, 24/32 , 27/36, 30/40, 33/44, 36/48 , 39/52, 42/56, 45/60, 48/64 , 51/68, 54/72, 57/76, 60/80, ect..

I hope this is what you are looking for :)

Answer:

Options (C) and (F)

Step-by-step explanation:

Polynomial function is,

f(x) = x³ - x² - 5x - 3

Possible rational roots of the given function will be = [tex]\frac{\pm1, \pm3}{\pm1}[/tex]

By putting x = -1

f(-1) = (-1)³ - (-1)² -5(-1) - 3

     = -1 - 1 + 5 - 3

     = 0

Therefore, x = -1 will a root of the given function.

Now we apply synthetic division to get the other roots,

-1 |  1       -1       -5      -3

      ↓      -1         2      3

     1       -2       -3      0

Therefore, factored form of the polynomial will be (x + 1)(x² - 2x - 3).

Now we will find the roots of (x² -2x - 3).

x² - 2x - 3 = x² - 3x + x - 3

                = x(x - 3) + 1(x - 3)

                = (x + 1)(x - 3)

For roots of the function, f(x) = 0

(x + 1)(x - 3) = 0

x = -1, 3

Therefore, roots of the function are x = -1, 3

Options (C) and (F) are the answers.

Answer:

The rate of trip 2 is 5 km/h

The time of trip 1 is 0.9-x

Step-by-step explanation:

The rate of trip 2 is 5 km/h because it tells you she walked at an avg speed of 5 km/h.

The time of trip 1 is 0.9-x. It's because the time in trip 2 is x, and it says the total is 0.9. So just subtract 0.9-x.

Also I took the test on edge and attached a pic.

Answer:

100 inches Over 1 minute times × 1 foot Over 12 inches

Step by Step explanation

Remember that

1ft=12in

The expression converts 100 inches per minute to feet per minute is

100 inch / min x 1 ft/ 12 inch.

The same attribute is expressed using a unit conversion, but in a different unit of measurement. Time can be expressed in minutes rather than hours, and distance can be expressed in miles, kilometres, feet, or any other measurement unit.

We know

1 feet = 12 inch

We have to convert 100 inches per minute to feet per minute.

So, 100 inches

= 100 inch / min x 1 ft/ 12 inch

= 8.33 ft per minute

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Answer:

NO

Step-by-step explanation:

The objective of this surveys is to determine if the two surveys will reach a similar conclusion.

From the data given, we have  two test surveys here:

The survey is to measure the effect of an advertising campaign for a certain brand of detergent.

Now in the first survey; interviewers ask house- wives whether they use that brand of detergent and in the second survey  the interviewers ask to see what detergent is being used.

Let assume that the brand name of the detergent is KLIN ;

From this disparities of statement ; we anticipate that they will reach different conclusion. This is because; from the first survey people will either respond to the fact that they use the brand detergent (KLIN) or do not used the brand detergent. But in the second survey; when being asked to see what detergent that is being used. There are greater chance that they will bring out the detergent that is commonly used  which will eventually result to the same detergent .

Answer:

y=-4x+1

Step-by-step explanation:

You want to find the equation for a line that passes through the point (-1,5) and has a slope of -4.

First of all, remember what the equation of a line is:

y = mx+b

Where:

m is the slope, and

b is the y-intercept

To start, you know what m is; it's just the slope, which you said was -4. So you can right away fill in the equation for a line somewhat to read:

y=-4x+b.

Now, what about b, the y-intercept?

To find b, think about what your (x,y) point means:

(-1,5). When x of the line is -1, y of the line must be 5.

Because you said the line passes through this point, right?

Now, look at our line's equation so far: . b is what we want, the -4 is already set and x and y are just two "free variables" sitting there. We can plug anything we want in for x and y here, but we want the equation for the line that specfically passes through the the point (-1,5).

So, why not plug in for x the number -1 and for y the number 5? This will allow us to solve for b for the particular line that passes through the point you gave!.

(-1,5). y=mx+b or 5=-4 × -1+b, or solving for b: b=5-(-4)(-1). b=1.

The equation of line passes through the point (-1, 5) will be;

⇒ y = - 4x - 2

The equation of line in point-slope form passing through the points

(x₁ , y₁) and (x₂, y₂) with slope m is defined as;

⇒ y - y₁ = m (x - x₁)

Where, m = (y₂ - y₁) / (x₂ - x₁)

Given that;

The point on the line are (-1, 5).

And, The slope of line is,

⇒ m = - 4

Now,

Since, The equation of line passes through the point (- 1, 5).

And, Slope of the line is,

m = - 4

Thus, The equation of line with slope - 4 is,

⇒ y - 5 = - 4 (x - (-1))

⇒ y - 2 = - 4 (x + 1)

⇒ y - 2 = - 4x - 4

⇒ y = - 4x - 4 + 2

⇒ y = - 4x - 2

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Answer:

33.2

Step-by-step explanation:

70−30+2−9+0.3−0.1

=40+2−9+0.3−0.1

=40+−7+0.3−0.1

=33+0.3−0.1

=33+0.2

=33.2

Answer:

33.2

Step-by-step explanation

If we start from the left and work our way right:

70+(-30) is the same as 70-30 which would give 40

2+(-9) is the same as 2-9 which would give -7

0.3(-0.1) is the same as 0.3-0.1 which would give 0.2

now if you put them together

40-7+.2 gives 33.2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

20 sin^4x

=5(4sin^4 x)

=5(2sin²x)²

=5(1-cos 2x)²

=5(1-4cos2x+cos²(2x))

=5[1-4cos(2x)+{1+cos (4x)}/2]

=5/2[2-8cos(2x)+1+cos(4x)]

=5/2[3-8cos (2x)+cos (4x)]

Answer: -6m-n+3

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is -6m-n+3 because -3

times 2m is -6m and -n stays the same its outside of the parenthesis

and lastly -3 times -1 is positive 3

so answer maches up with the last one

the answer is -6m-n+3

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

-6m-n+3

Step-by-step explanation:

-3 x 2 is -6m (n stays same)

-3 x -1 is whole or positive 3

put it together and u get -6m-n+3

hope this helps

Answer:

The probability that a randomly selected member of this class of homeowners will not file a claim of either type is 0.89.

Step-by-step explanation:

Denote the events as follows:

X = liability claim will be filled

Y = property claim will be filled

The information provided is:

P (X) = 0.04

P (Y) = 0.10

P (X ∩ Y') = 0.01

The probability that a randomly selected member of the class of homeowners will not file a claim of either type will be given by:

[tex]P[(X\cup Y)']=1-P(X\cup Y)=1-[P(X)+P(Y)-P(X\cap Y)][/tex]

According to the law of total probability:

[tex]P(B)=P(B\cap A)+P(B\cap A')[/tex]

Use the law of total probability to determine the value of P (X ∩ Y) as follows:

[tex]P(X)=P(X\cap Y)+P(X\cap Y')\\\\P(X\cap Y)=P(X)-P(X\cap Y')\\\\=0.04-0.01\\\\=0.03[/tex]

The value of P (X ∩ Y) is 0.03.

Compute the value of P (X ∪ Y) as follows:

[tex]P[(X\cup Y)']=1-P(X\cup Y)[/tex]

                   [tex]=1-[P(X)+P(Y)-P(X\cap Y)]\\\\=1-[0.04+0.10-0.03]\\\\=1-0.11\\\\=0.89[/tex]

Thus, the probability that a randomly selected member of this class of homeowners will not file a claim of either type is 0.89.

Answer:

John is 9.21 km form the school.

Step-by-step explanation:

John leaves school to go home. His bus drives 6 kilometres north and then goes 7 kilometres west. It is required to find John's distance from the school. It is equal to the shortest path covered or its displacement. So,

[tex]d=\sqrt{6^2+7^2} \\\\d=9.21\ km[/tex]

So, John is 9.21 km form the school.

Answer:

[tex] 4.2 \times {10}^{4} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]42000 = 4.2000 \times \times {10}^{4} \\ = 4.2 \times {10}^{4} [/tex]

Answer:

Study 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay, so in this question we are given the data or parameters or information Below;

=>" two studies were conducted on the effectiveness of a peer mentoring program."

=> "Self-evaluation ratings among participants before, during, and after the program were measured in both studies."

=> In Study 1, 12 participants were observed"

=> "Study 2, 16 participants were observed."

=> " If Fobt = 3.42 in both studies"

Say Vo = study 2 and V1 = study 1.

Hence, Vo: not effective.

V1 = effective.

The study in which the decision will be to reject the null hypothesis at α= 0.05 level of significance is the STUDY 2.

This is because the value of F > f-critical.

Answer:

91.92% of pregnancies last beyond 246 days

Step-by-step explanation:

When the distribution is normal, we use the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

In this question, we have that:

[tex]\mu = 267, \sigma = 15[/tex]

What percentage of pregnancies last beyond 246 days?

We have to find 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 246. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{246 - 267}{15}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1.4[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1.4[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.0808

1 - 0.0808 = 0.9192

91.92% of pregnancies last beyond 246 days

Answer:  r_max = 1.75m

Step-by-step explanation:

Below is a rather brief analysis to solving this problem.

The phone starts sliding when along incline,

when F_net = m g sin(theta) - fs_max = 0  

and fs_max = us N = us m g cos(theta)

m g sin(theta) - us m g cos(theta) =

us = tan(theta) = tan38 = 0.781  

On merry - go - round,

fs_max = us N = us m g

Using F = m a

fs_max = m w^2 r_max and w = 2pi / T

us m g = m (2 pi / T)^2 (r_max)

0.781 x 9.81 = (2 pi / 3)^2 (r_max)

r_max = 1.75 m

cheers i hope this helped !!